Polity Set 161 | MROY Class

Polity Questions & Answers (Set 161)

The legal “Doctrine of Laches” essentially states that courts will not help people who sleep on their rights. However, the Supreme Court has generally ruled that this doctrine does NOT strictly apply to petitions filed under which Article? – Article 32 (Fundamental Rights)
Under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, a motion for the removal (impeachment) of a Supreme Court or High Court judge requires the signatures of at least how many members if introduced in the Lok Sabha? – 100
Under the same Act, a motion for the removal of a judge requires the signatures of at least how many members if introduced in the Rajya Sabha? – 50
Once the motion is admitted by the Speaker/Chairman, a three-member committee is constituted to investigate the charges against the judge. Which of the following is NOT typically a member of this committee? – The Union Law Minister
Which Article grants the President of India the power to refer any matter of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion? – Article 143
Is the Supreme Court bound to give its opinion to the President on all matters referred to it under Article 143? – No, it is bound to give its opinion only on pre-constitution treaty disputes, and may decline to answer other questions of law or fact.
Which committee’s recommendations paved the way for the enactment of the PESA Act (Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996)? – Bhuria Committee
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006. Under this Act, who is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights? – The Gram Sabha
Which statutory body was established in 1990 to protect and promote the interests of women in India, and to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women? – National Commission for Women (NCW)
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was established in 2007 as a statutory body under the CPCR Act, 2005. It operates under the administrative control of which Ministry? – Ministry of Women and Child Development
Which statutory authority was established in 2003, replacing the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Commission, to prevent practices having an adverse effect on economic competition? – Competition Commission of India (CCI)
The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) were constituted under the provisions of which Act? – The Companies Act, 2013
In 2019, the Government of India created the post of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) to act as the principal military advisor to the Defence Minister. The CDS is a: – Four-star General
The National Security Council (NSC) of India is the apex agency looking into the country’s political, economic, energy, and strategic security concerns. It is headed by the: – Prime Minister
What is the Strategic Policy Group (SPG)? – The core inter-ministerial coordination mechanism of the National Security Council (NSC)
Which Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) made it clear that the Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, under Article 368? – 24th Amendment Act
The 25th Amendment Act (1971) inserted Article 31C. It gave primacy to the Directive Principles contained in Article 39(b) and (c) over the Fundamental Rights contained in Articles: – 14, 19, and 31
The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) attempted to extend the scope of Article 31C by giving primacy to all Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights. Which landmark Supreme Court case struck down this specific expansion? – Minerva Mills case (1980)
Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted a new Part XIV-A (Tribunals) containing Articles 323A and 323B? – 42nd Amendment Act (1976)
The 44th Amendment Act (1978) substituted the term “Internal Disturbance” with “Armed Rebellion” in Article 352. It also required that a National Emergency can only be declared by the President on the written advice of the: – Cabinet
Which Amendment Act is recognized for making primary education a Fundamental Right (Article 21A) and adding the 11th Fundamental Duty? – 86th Amendment Act (2002)
Which Constitutional Amendment Act restricted the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha / State Legislative Assembly? – 91st Amendment Act (2003)
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act (2011) gave constitutional status to Co-operative Societies. It added which new Part to the Constitution? – Part IX-B
The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act (2016) introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST). Which new Article was inserted to establish the GST Council? – Article 279A
Which Constitutional Amendment Act granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)? – 102nd Amendment Act (2018)
The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act (2019) provided for a maximum of 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). It amended which two Articles of the Constitution? – Articles 15 and 16
The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act (2020) extended political reservations for SCs and STs for another ten years, but officially ended the provision for nominating members of which community to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies? – The Anglo-Indian community
Article 371 of the Constitution makes special provisions for the establishment of separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada, Saurashtra, and Kutch in the states of: – Maharashtra and Gujarat
Article 371A gives special provisions to the state of Nagaland. Under this Article, acts of Parliament relating to Naga religious or social practices do not apply unless approved by the: – State Legislative Assembly of Nagaland
Article 371G provides similar protections regarding Mizo religious or social practices and Mizo customary law for the state of: – Mizoram

MROY Class

Polity Set 161

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📌 Fundamental Rights • Constitutional Law

Q.1) The legal “Doctrine of Laches” essentially states that courts will not help people who sleep on their rights. However, the Supreme Court has generally ruled that this doctrine does NOT strictly apply to petitions filed under which Article?

Ans > Article 32 (Fundamental Rights)

Understanding the Doctrine of Laches: The legal maxim “Vigilantibus non dormientibus jura subveniunt” implies that the law assists those who are vigilant about their rights, not those who sleep over them. This equitable defense is used by courts to deny relief to claimants who have unreasonably delayed asserting their legal claims.
Article 32 and Fundamental Rights: Article 32 of the Indian Constitution is considered the “heart and soul” of the Constitution, as stated by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. It guarantees the absolute right to move the Supreme Court directly for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, providing a powerful constitutional remedy.
Supreme Court’s Stance on Delay: The Supreme Court of India has consistently held that the Doctrine of Laches does not strictly apply to Article 32 petitions. Because Fundamental Rights are paramount and essential for democratic functioning, they cannot be easily waived just because a petitioner was late in approaching the court. However, courts may still exercise discretion if the delay causes third-party rights to be irrevocably affected, but fundamental rights generally trump procedural delays.

📌 Judiciary • Impeachment

Q.2) Under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, a motion for the removal (impeachment) of a Supreme Court or High Court judge requires the signatures of at least how many members if introduced in the Lok Sabha?

Ans > 100

Constitutional Provisions for Impeachment: The process for the removal of a Supreme Court or High Court judge in India is strictly governed by Article 124(4) of the Constitution along with the Judges (Inquiry) Act of 1968. This ensures judicial independence by making the removal process rigorous, objective, and exceptionally difficult to execute.
Initiation in the Lok Sabha: If a motion for impeachment is to be initiated in the lower house of Parliament, the Lok Sabha, it carries a significant threshold to prevent frivolous, vindictive, or politically motivated charges against the judiciary. The Act mandates that the motion must be supported and signed by no less than 100 members of the Lok Sabha before submission.
Role of the Speaker: Once the 100 signatures are collected and the motion is presented, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the discretionary authority to either admit the motion or refuse it. If admitted, the Speaker proceeds to constitute a specialized three-member committee to formally investigate the specific allegations of misbehavior or incapacity against the judge in question.

📌 Judiciary • Impeachment

Q.3) Under the same Act, a motion for the removal of a judge requires the signatures of at least how many members if introduced in the Rajya Sabha?

Ans > 50

Bicameral Initiation Options: The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, provides the flexibility to initiate the impeachment process of a higher judiciary judge in either house of the Indian Parliament. This ensures that both the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) have a distinct role in holding the judiciary accountable.
Rajya Sabha Signature Threshold: Recognizing the vastly different total strengths of the two legislative houses, the Act sets a proportionately lower threshold for the Rajya Sabha. To introduce an impeachment motion in the upper house, it must bear the signatures of at least 50 members. This reflects the Rajya Sabha’s smaller overall membership compared to the Lok Sabha.
Chairman’s Discretionary Power: Upon receiving the motion signed by the requisite 50 members, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (who is the Vice President of India) exercises the exact same discretionary power as the Lok Sabha Speaker. The Chairman evaluates the initial merit of the motion and decides whether to admit it for further formal investigation by a statutory three-member committee or to reject it outright.

📌 Judiciary • Committees

Q.4) Once the motion is admitted by the Speaker/Chairman, a three-member committee is constituted to investigate the charges against the judge. Which of the following is NOT typically a member of this committee?

Ans > The Union Law Minister

Objective Investigation Framework: To ensure that the investigation into a judge’s alleged misbehavior or incapacity is entirely impartial and free from executive branch influence, the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, meticulously defines the composition of the investigating committee. The overarching goal is to maintain the strict separation of powers doctrine.
Statutory Composition of the Committee: The law mandates that the three-member committee must consist exclusively of highly esteemed legal minds to evaluate the charges. Specifically, the committee must include one sitting Chief Justice or judge of the Supreme Court, one Chief Justice of a High Court, and one distinguished jurist to ensure peer review and expert legal analysis.
Exclusion of the Executive Branch: The Union Law Minister, being a prominent member of the political executive and the ruling cabinet, is deliberately excluded from this investigating committee. Including a government minister would severely compromise the judicial independence of the process and introduce dangerous political bias. The committee acts in a quasi-judicial capacity, evaluating objective evidence before Parliament proceeds.

📌 Supreme Court • Jurisdiction

Q.5) Which Article grants the President of India the power to refer any matter of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion?

Ans > Article 143

The Concept of Advisory Jurisdiction: The Indian Constitution, uniquely blending various global constitutional principles, vests the Supreme Court of India with a special “Advisory Jurisdiction.” This is not a mechanism for resolving active litigation between adversarial parties, but rather a consultative process allowing the highest executive office to seek expert legal guidance.
Provisions of Article 143: Under Article 143 of the Constitution, the President of India is directly empowered to refer any question of law or fact of profound public importance to the Supreme Court for its consideration and opinion. This proactive measure helps the government understand the constitutional validity of proposed legislation or executive actions before formal enactment.
Historical Utilization: This constitutional provision has been invoked several times in India’s modern history for critical, complex matters. Famous historical instances include the Delhi Laws Act case, the Special Courts Bill reference, the Presidential Election reference, and the highly publicized 2G spectrum allocation reference. The Supreme Court’s opinion clarifies the legal landscape for the executive branch.

📌 Supreme Court • Jurisdiction

Q.6) Is the Supreme Court bound to give its opinion to the President on all matters referred to it under Article 143?

Ans > No, it is bound to give its opinion only on pre-constitution treaty disputes, and may decline to answer other questions of law or fact.

Two Categories of Presidential References: Article 143 is distinctly divided into two operational clauses. Clause (1) deals with questions of law or fact of general public importance that have arisen or are likely to arise. Clause (2) specifically addresses historical disputes arising out of pre-constitution treaties, agreements, covenants, or similar historical instruments.
Discretion Under Clause (1): When the President refers a matter of public importance under Article 143(1), the Supreme Court is not constitutionally obligated to provide an opinion. The Court retains the absolute discretion to decline to answer the reference if it finds the question inappropriate, overly political in nature, or unnecessary to answer at that specific time.
Mandatory Obligation Under Clause (2): Conversely, if the President refers a dispute concerning a pre-constitution treaty or agreement under Article 143(2), the scenario changes entirely. In these specific historical and legal disputes, the Supreme Court is constitutionally bound to consider the matter and deliver its advisory opinion to the President. However, the final opinion provided by the Court remains purely advisory.

📌 Local Government • Panchayati Raj

Q.7) Which committee’s recommendations paved the way for the enactment of the PESA Act (Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996)?

Ans > Bhuria Committee

The Context of the PESA Act: The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, commonly known as the PESA Act, was enacted to extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats to the Scheduled Areas. It aimed to recognize the traditional rights of tribal populations and empower local Gram Sabhas.
Historical Committee Recommendations: The Dilip Singh Bhuria Committee (constituted in 1994) is credited with providing the foundational recommendations that led to the PESA Act. The committee focused heavily on tribal self-rule, local autonomy, and the protection of indigenous customs, traditions, and resource management.

📌 Forest Rights • Tribal Affairs

Q.8) The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006. Under this Act, who is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights?

Ans > The Gram Sabha

Empowering Grassroots Democracy: The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, represents a massive paradigm shift in forest governance across India. A central tenet of this progressive legislation is the democratization of forest rights determination, moving power away from centralized state bureaucracies directly to local community institutions.
The Crucial Role of the Gram Sabha: Under the explicit provisions of the FRA, the Gram Sabha (the foundational assembly of all adult residents of a village) is designated as the primary statutory authority responsible for initiating the complex process of determining the nature and extent of forest rights. This includes both individual forest rights (IFR) for cultivation and community forest rights (CFR).
The Verification and Approval Process: The Gram Sabha initiates this entire process by receiving claims, consolidating them, and passing a formal resolution recommending these rights. This local resolution is then forwarded to the Sub-Divisional Level Committee (SDLC) and subsequently to the District Level Committee (DLC) for final verification and legal approval, ensuring community consensus drives the process.

📌 Statutory Bodies • Women Rights

Q.9) Which statutory body was established in 1990 to protect and promote the interests of women in India, and to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women?

Ans > National Commission for Women (NCW)

Legislative Genesis: The National Commission for Women (NCW) was conceptualized to address the deeply systemic challenges and historical injustices faced by women in India. The groundwork was formally laid with the passing of the National Commission for Women Act in 1990 by the Indian Parliament, providing a robust statutory framework for a dedicated national body.
Mandate and Core Objectives: The primary mandate of the NCW, which officially commenced operations in January 1992, is to vigorously protect and promote the broad interests of women. It is tasked with reviewing the constitutional and legal safeguards provided for women, recommending remedial legislative measures, facilitating redressal of grievances, and advising the government on policy matters.
Investigative and Advisory Powers: To effectively fulfill its critical role, the NCW is vested with the powers of a civil court. This allows the commission to summon witnesses, demand the production of documents, and examine evidence under oath. The body proactively takes up cases of violence, harassment, and discrimination against women, often taking suo motu cognizance of incidents reported in the media.

📌 Statutory Bodies • Child Rights

Q.10) The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was established in 2007 as a statutory body under the CPCR Act, 2005. It operates under the administrative control of which Ministry?

Ans > Ministry of Women and Child Development

Statutory Foundation: The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is the apex statutory body in India strictly dedicated to defending, safeguarding, and promoting the rights of children. It was formally established in March 2007 under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005, reflecting the nation’s commitment to youth welfare.
Administrative Jurisdiction: For essential operational and administrative purposes, the NCPCR functions under the direct aegis of the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD). This specific ministry is the nodal agency of the Government of India for all matters pertaining to the holistic welfare, development, and protection of women and children nationwide.
Broad Scope of Responsibilities: The NCPCR’s mandate is highly comprehensive, ensuring that all laws, state policies, programs, and administrative mechanisms align perfectly with the child rights perspective enshrined in the Indian Constitution. The commission actively investigates complaints of child rights violations and monitors the implementation of key legislations like the Right to Education (RTE) Act and the POCSO Act.

📌 Statutory Bodies • Economic Regulation

Q.11) Which statutory authority was established in 2003, replacing the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Commission, to prevent practices having an adverse effect on economic competition?

Ans > Competition Commission of India (CCI)

Transition from MRTP to Competition Act: The sweeping economic liberalization of India in 1991 necessitated a fundamental shift in the regulatory framework governing market practices. The older Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act of 1969, which aimed at curbing monopolies, was deemed completely outdated for a modern, globalized economy. Consequently, the Competition Act, 2002 was enacted.
Establishment of the CCI: To strictly enforce the provisions of the newly drafted Competition Act, the Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established in 2003 (becoming fully functional over subsequent years). The CCI serves as the chief national competition regulator, tasked with ensuring fair, transparent, and healthy competition in the booming Indian market.
Core Functions of the Regulator: The primary objectives of the CCI are to aggressively eliminate practices that have an appreciable adverse effect on competition, promote and sustain market competition, protect the interests of consumers, and ensure freedom of trade. It actively investigates anti-competitive agreements, cartels, abuse of dominant market positions, and scrutinizes large-scale mergers and acquisitions.

📌 Tribunals • Corporate Law

Q.12) The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) were constituted under the provisions of which Act?

Ans > The Companies Act, 2013

Modernization of Corporate Law: The entire corporate legal framework in India underwent a massive overhaul with the enactment of the Companies Act, 2013, which ultimately replaced the decades-old Companies Act, 1956. This new legislation was meticulously designed to enhance corporate governance, improve business transparency, and significantly streamline the legal processes associated with corporate disputes.
Creation of Specialized Tribunals: A key innovation of the Companies Act, 2013, was the provision for establishing specialized, quasi-judicial bodies to rapidly handle complex corporate litigation. Consequently, the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and the appellate body, the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), were officially constituted in June 2016 to replace the older, slower Company Law Board.
Jurisdiction and Impact: The NCLT serves as the primary legal forum for resolving disputes strictly related to the Companies Act, including matters of oppression and mismanagement, mergers, and restructuring. Furthermore, the NCLT and NCLAT later assumed an incredibly critical role as the adjudicating authorities for corporate insolvency resolution processes under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016.

📌 Defense • Military Administration

Q.13) In 2019, the Government of India created the post of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) to act as the principal military advisor to the Defence Minister. The CDS is a:

Ans > Four-star General

Evolution of the CDS Position: The creation of the high-profile post of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) was a landmark military reform in India, actualized in 2019. The critical need for a single-point military advisor had been recommended by various expert defense committees, including the Kargil Review Committee, to ensure better synergy among the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
Rank and Status: The Chief of Defence Staff is a highly elevated and respected military position, holding the prestigious rank of a Four-star General (or equivalent four-star rank in the Navy or Air Force). While the operational chiefs of the three armed services are also four-star officers, the CDS is designed to act as the “first among equals.”
Roles and Responsibilities: The CDS acts as the Principal Military Advisor to the Defence Minister on all tri-services matters. Additionally, the CDS heads the newly created Department of Military Affairs (DMA) within the Ministry of Defence. The core objective of this demanding role is to foster integration, optimize resource allocation, and strategically modernize the Indian Armed Forces.

📌 National Security • Executive

Q.14) The National Security Council (NSC) of India is the apex agency looking into the country’s political, economic, energy, and strategic security concerns. It is headed by the:

Ans > Prime Minister

Formation of the NSC: The National Security Council (NSC) of India was established in 1998 by the central government to serve as the absolute apex executive agency for national security management. It was specifically created to provide a holistic, integrated, and highly coordinated approach to managing the nation’s overall security paradigm across multiple non-military domains.
Leadership and Apex Structure: At the very top of this critical strategic architecture sits the Prime Minister of India, who directly heads the National Security Council. The Prime Minister’s leadership ensures that the highest political authority directly oversees and guides the country’s strategic trajectory, encompassing internal security, external defense, foreign policy, and complex economic security aspects.
Composition of the Council: The NSC includes senior cabinet ministers as its core members, specifically the Ministers of Home Affairs, Defence, External Affairs, and Finance. The National Security Advisor (NSA), a highly influential and powerful position, functions as the primary Secretary to the NSC and the chief advisor to the Prime Minister on all immediate and long-term security issues.

📌 National Security • Executive

Q.15) What is the Strategic Policy Group (SPG)?

Ans > The core inter-ministerial coordination mechanism of the National Security Council (NSC)

Three-Tier Structure of the NSC: The National Security Council (NSC) of India does not operate in a vacuum but functions through a well-defined three-tier structure to process vast intelligence and formulate actionable policy. These three distinct tiers include the Strategic Policy Group (SPG), the National Security Advisory Board (NSAB), and a dedicated Secretariat.
Role of the Strategic Policy Group: The Strategic Policy Group (SPG) serves as the indispensable core inter-ministerial coordination mechanism within the NSC framework. It is the principal administrative forum where top bureaucrats and intelligence chiefs formally meet to synthesize inputs, conduct long-term strategic threat assessments, and prepare draft policy options for the political leadership.
Composition of the SPG: Reflecting its vital coordinating role across various government domains, the SPG comprises the highest-ranking civil servants and security officials in the government. It includes the Cabinet Secretary, the Chiefs of the Armed Forces, the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, the heads of intelligence agencies (IB and RAW), and secretaries from key pivotal ministries.

📌 Constitutional Amendments • Fundamental Rights

Q.16) Which Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) made it clear that the Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, under Article 368?

Ans > 24th Amendment Act

The Golaknath Judgement Trigger: The genesis of the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 lies deeply rooted in the landmark Supreme Court ruling in the Golaknath case (1967). In that highly controversial judgment, the Court held that Parliament did not have the power to amend Part III of the Constitution to take away or abridge Fundamental Rights.
Restoring Parliamentary Supremacy: To aggressively counteract the Golaknath ruling and re-establish legislative dominance, the government enacted the 24th Amendment Act. This crucial amendment explicitly modified Articles 13 and 368 of the Constitution to unequivocally declare that the Parliament has the absolute constituent power to amend, vary, or repeal any provision, including Fundamental Rights.
Presidential Assent Made Mandatory: Besides forcefully asserting the amending power of Parliament, the 24th Amendment also introduced a significant procedural change regarding the legislative process. It altered Article 368 to make it constitutionally obligatory for the President of India to give their assent to any Constitutional Amendment Bill that has been duly passed by both Houses.

📌 Constitutional Amendments • DPSP

Q.17) The 25th Amendment Act (1971) inserted Article 31C. It gave primacy to the Directive Principles contained in Article 39(b) and (c) over the Fundamental Rights contained in Articles:

Ans > 14, 19, and 31

The 25th Amendment Act of 1971: The 25th Constitutional Amendment was a massive landmark legislative change that actively sought to overcome the judicial hurdles in implementing the government’s socialist policies. It formally introduced Article 31C into the Indian Constitution, significantly altering the delicate historical balance between Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Primacy of Directive Principles: The core constitutional intent of Article 31C was to ensure that laws explicitly enacted to give effect to the Directive Principles specified in Article 39(b) (equitable distribution of material resources) and Article 39(c) (prevention of concentration of wealth) could not be legally challenged on the grounds of violating certain fundamental rights.
The Subordinated Rights: To execute these specific Directive Principles, the 25th Amendment explicitly subordinated the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 14 (Equality before law), Article 19 (Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.), and Article 31 (Right to property, which was later completely repealed).

📌 Constitutional Law • Basic Structure

Q.18) The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) attempted to extend the scope of Article 31C by giving primacy to all Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights. Which landmark Supreme Court case struck down this specific expansion?

Ans > Minerva Mills case (1980)

The 42nd Amendment’s Expansion: During the highly contentious Emergency era, the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) sought to drastically alter the constitutional balance of power. It amended Article 31C to give overarching legal primacy to all Directive Principles of State Policy over the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Articles 14, 19, and 31, essentially subverting civil liberties.
The Minerva Mills Challenge: The constitutional validity of this sweeping and authoritarian expansion was fiercely challenged in the landmark Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India case in 1980. The petitioners successfully argued that subordinating all Fundamental Rights to Directive Principles completely destroyed the basic structure of the Constitution, which relies on balance.
Supreme Court’s Verdict on Basic Structure: The Supreme Court agreed with the petitioners and struck down the specific expansion of Article 31C introduced by the 42nd Amendment. The Court famously ruled that the Indian Constitution is founded securely on the “bedrock of the balance” between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles, declaring this harmony as an unamendable basic feature.

📌 Constitutional Amendments • Tribunals

Q.19) Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted a new Part XIV-A (Tribunals) containing Articles 323A and 323B?

Ans > 42nd Amendment Act (1976)

The Need for Administrative Adjudication: As the functions and scope of the modern welfare state rapidly expanded, the regular court system in India became severely burdened with intense litigation, leading to massive pendency and unacceptable delays. To ensure speedy and highly specialized justice, the critical need for alternative administrative institutional mechanisms became apparent.
Introduction of Part XIV-A: Recognizing this severe administrative necessity, the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 introduced a brand new Part XIV-A to the Indian Constitution, plainly titled “Tribunals.” This major addition provided explicit constitutional backing for the formal establishment of specialized quasi-judicial bodies entirely outside the traditional hierarchical structure of the normal courts.
Articles 323A and 323B: Part XIV-A neatly consists of two critical articles. Article 323A empowers Parliament to establish Administrative Tribunals specifically for resolving disputes related to the recruitment and conditions of service of public servants. Article 323B empowers both Parliament and State Legislatures to establish specialized tribunals for adjudicating disputes relating to taxation, foreign exchange, and land reforms.

📌 Emergency Provisions • Constitutional Amendments

Q.20) The 44th Amendment Act (1978) substituted the term “Internal Disturbance” with “Armed Rebellion” in Article 352. It also required that a National Emergency can only be declared by the President on the written advice of the:

Ans > Cabinet

Correcting the Abuses of the Emergency: The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, passed in 1978 by the Janata Party government, was primarily designed to systematically reverse many of the controversial, draconian changes introduced by the 42nd Amendment during the 1975-1977 Emergency. Its primary goal was to introduce rigid constitutional safeguards against the future misuse of executive power.
Stricter Grounds for Emergency: One of the most significant democratic changes was amending Article 352. The notoriously vague phrase “internal disturbance,” which was used to arbitrarily justify the 1975 Emergency, was legally replaced with the much narrower and far more severe term “armed rebellion.” This made it significantly harder for a government to declare an Emergency.
The Mandatory Cabinet Advice Safeguard: To further prevent the arbitrary declaration of a National Emergency by the Prime Minister acting entirely alone, the 44th Amendment introduced a crucial procedural check. It legally mandated that the President can only proclaim an Emergency upon receiving written advice specifically from the “Cabinet” collectively, not just the Prime Minister.

📌 Fundamental Rights • Education

Q.21) Which Amendment Act is recognized for making primary education a Fundamental Right (Article 21A) and adding the 11th Fundamental Duty?

Ans > 86th Amendment Act (2002)

The Journey to the Right to Education: The realization that universal elementary education is absolutely crucial for equitable national development led to a decade-long legislative push to make it a justifiable legal right. Following the Supreme Court’s Unnikrishnan judgment (1993), which interpreted the right to education as implicit in the right to life, Parliament acted decisively.
Insertion of Article 21A: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 achieved this massive milestone by formally inserting Article 21A into Part III of the Constitution. This new article explicitly declared that “the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years,” officially making elementary education a Fundamental Right.
Adding the 11th Fundamental Duty: Alongside granting this vital right to children across the nation, the 86th Amendment also introduced a corresponding duty for citizens. It amended Article 51A (Fundamental Duties) to add a new clause (k), which strictly mandates that it is the duty of every citizen parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to their ward.

📌 Council of Ministers • Constitutional Amendments

Q.22) Which Constitutional Amendment Act restricted the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha / State Legislative Assembly?

Ans > 91st Amendment Act (2003)

The Problem of Jumbo Ministries: In the volatile era of coalition politics in India during the 1990s and early 2000s, governments frequently resorted to creating massive “jumbo” ministries. This cynical practice of offering ministerial berths to secure political support and ensure government survival led to excessive public expenditure and highly inefficient governance, prompting demands for reform.
Implementing the Cap on Ministers: To strictly curb this political appeasement and reduce the financial burden on the exchequer, the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted in 2003. It definitively amended Article 72 and Article 164 of the Constitution to legally mandate a ceiling on the total size of the Council of Ministers at both the central and state levels to 15%.
Strengthening Anti-Defection Laws: In addition to capping the size of ministries, the 91st Amendment also heavily fortified the Anti-Defection Law contained in the Tenth Schedule. It completely omitted the provision that previously allowed a legal split in a political party (if one-third of members defected), making defection rules much stricter and imposing harsher penalties on defectors.

📌 Co-operative Societies • Constitutional Amendments

Q.23) The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act (2011) gave constitutional status to Co-operative Societies. It added which new Part to the Constitution?

Ans > Part IX-B

Empowering the Cooperative Movement: Co-operative societies have played a historically vital role in India’s socio-economic development, particularly in rural credit, dairy, and agriculture sectors. However, many suffered from poor governance, deep political interference, and an overall lack of professional management. The 97th Amendment was introduced to revitalize these crucial institutions and ensure their democratic functioning.
Addition of Part IX-B: To grant robust and undeniable constitutional backing to the vast cooperative sector, the 97th Amendment formally inserted a brand new part into the Constitution, designated as Part IX-B, titled “The Co-operative Societies.” This part details comprehensive constitutional guidelines regarding the incorporation, board composition, terms of office, and auditing of cooperative societies.
Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles: Beyond Part IX-B, the amendment made two other highly significant constitutional changes. It amended Article 19(1)(c) to legally elevate the right “to form co-operative societies” to the prestigious status of a Fundamental Right. Additionally, it introduced a new Directive Principle via Article 43B, mandating the State to actively promote their autonomous functioning.

📌 GST • Constitutional Amendments

Q.24) The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act (2016) introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST). Which new Article was inserted to establish the GST Council?

Ans > Article 279A

Overhauling Indirect Taxation: The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2016 unambiguously represents the most comprehensive and complex reform of India’s indirect tax structure since independence. By paving the way for the Goods and Services Tax (GST), it aggressively aimed to dismantle cascading taxes, completely unify the fragmented domestic market, and establish a simplified “One Nation, One Tax” regime.
Establishment of the GST Council: The successful implementation of a nationwide dual-GST model required a highly robust institutional mechanism for cooperative federalism, where the Centre and States could jointly make binding decisions. To facilitate this, the 101st Amendment inserted a critical new provision, Article 279A, into the Constitution, explicitly mandating the President to constitute the GST Council.
Structure and Role of the Council: Under the strict provisions of Article 279A, the GST Council serves as the absolute apex joint forum of the Centre and the States on all critical matters related to GST. It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes finance ministers nominated by all state governments to recommend tax rates and exemptions.

📌 NCBC • Constitutional Amendments

Q.25) Which Constitutional Amendment Act granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)?

Ans > 102nd Amendment Act (2018)

Evolution of the NCBC: Originally, the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was formed purely as a statutory body in 1993, following the direct mandates of the Supreme Court in the landmark Mandal Commission case. For decades, it functioned under the Ministry of Social Justice primarily to evaluate inclusions and exclusions in the central list of OBCs.
Granting Constitutional Status: To highly empower the commission with significantly greater authority and legally bring it on par with the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC), the Parliament overwhelmingly passed the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 2018. This pivotal amendment officially conferred constitutional status upon the NCBC, heavily strengthening its mandate and structural independence.
Insertion of New Articles: The 102nd Amendment achieved this elevation by formally inserting Article 338B into the Constitution, which comprehensively deals with the structure, duties, and vast powers of the newly constitutionalized NCBC. Furthermore, it inserted Article 342A, which centralized the power to formally specify the list of socially and educationally backward classes for the central government’s purposes.

📌 EWS Reservation • Fundamental Rights

Q.26) The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act (2019) provided for a maximum of 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). It amended which two Articles of the Constitution?

Ans > Articles 15 and 16

A Paradigm Shift in Reservation Policy: Historically, affirmative action and reservations in India were almost exclusively tied to deep social and educational backwardness, primarily targeting historical caste-based discrimination. The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2019 marked a massive historic paradigm shift by formally introducing pure economic criteria for reservations, legally recognizing that poverty spans across all unreserved communities.
Amending Fundamental Rights: To effectively implement this entirely new policy without immediately running afoul of existing constitutional protections regarding equality, the government strategically amended the fundamental rights relating to equality and non-discrimination. The Act specifically amended Article 15 (prohibition of discrimination) and Article 16 (equality of opportunity in public employment).
Provisions for EWS: The newly inserted Article 15(6) directly enables the State to make special provisions, including up to 10% reservation in educational institutions, for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). Similarly, the newly inserted Article 16(6) explicitly permits the State to provide a maximum of 10% reservation in initial appointments to government posts and public services for the EWS category.

📌 Political Reservations • Constitutional Amendments

Q.27) The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act (2020) extended political reservations for SCs and STs for another ten years, but officially ended the provision for nominating members of which community to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies?

Ans > The Anglo-Indian community

The Decadal Extension of SC/ST Reservations: When the Indian Constitution was originally adopted, Article 334 clearly stipulated that political reservations for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha would completely cease after ten years. However, recognizing ongoing inequalities, Parliament has consistently amended the Constitution every ten years to extend this necessary timeline.
The Anglo-Indian Nomination Provision: Historically, under Article 331 and Article 333, the President of India and State Governors were constitutionally empowered to nominate members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies if they felt the community was severely under-represented. This was intended as a transitional protective measure for the microscopic minority community post-independence.
Sunset on Anglo-Indian Nominations: The 104th Amendment explicitly and deliberately chose not to extend this specific nomination provision for the Anglo-Indian community. The government formally reasoned that the community was now well-integrated and sufficiently prosperous, completely negating the need for continued special political representation via nomination, thus ending a 70-year-old constitutional practice.

📌 Special Provisions • State Administration

Q.28) Article 371 of the Constitution makes special provisions for the establishment of separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada, Saurashtra, and Kutch in the states of:

Ans > Maharashtra and Gujarat

Addressing Regional Imbalances: Part XXI of the Indian Constitution contains extremely vital “Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions,” which includes a complex series of articles from 371 to 371-J. These articles grant highly specific special provisions to distinct states to address unique regional economic disparities, protect delicate local customs, or manage law and order during turbulent state transitions.
Provisions for Maharashtra and Gujarat: The original Article 371 specifically and exclusively addresses the vast states of Maharashtra and Gujarat. It legally empowers the President of India to issue formal orders placing a special, overriding responsibility on the Governors of these two states regarding the equitable allocation of resources and development focus within specific historically underdeveloped regions.
Establishment of Development Boards: Under this presidential directive, the Governors of Maharashtra and Gujarat can establish powerful separate statutory development boards. For Maharashtra, these boards focus intently on the historically backward regions of Vidarbha and Marathwada. For Gujarat, the boards focus heavily on the arid and geographically distinct regions of Saurashtra and Kutch to ensure equitable growth.

📌 Special Provisions • Nagaland

Q.29) Article 371A gives special provisions to the state of Nagaland. Under this Article, acts of Parliament relating to Naga religious or social practices do not apply unless approved by the:

Ans > State Legislative Assembly of Nagaland

The Genesis of Article 371A: Article 371A was highly carefully incorporated into the Indian Constitution via the 13th Amendment Act in 1962, following a historic and delicate political agreement between the Government of India and the Naga People’s Convention. This constitutional safeguard was absolutely essential to pacify the Naga insurgency and integrate the Naga hills into the Union.
Protection of Naga Identity and Custom: The primary objective of Article 371A is to forcefully preserve the highly unique socio-cultural identity and traditional governance structures of the Naga people. It explicitly and legally restricts the legislative reach of the Indian Parliament in matters intimately connected to Naga life, ensuring that centralized laws do not arbitrarily override tribal customs.
The Veto Power of the State Assembly: According to the precise text of the article, no Act of Parliament concerning Naga religious or social practices, or Naga customary law and procedure, shall automatically apply to the State of Nagaland. Central laws on these specific sensitive subjects can only become applicable if the State Legislative Assembly of Nagaland explicitly passes a resolution agreeing to it.

📌 Special Provisions • Mizoram

Q.30) Article 371G provides similar protections regarding Mizo religious or social practices and Mizo customary law for the state of:

Ans > Mizoram

The Mizo Peace Accord: The special constitutional provisions found strictly under Article 371G were permanently integrated into the Indian Constitution through the 53rd Amendment Act in 1986. This vital constitutional amendment was a direct, negotiated result of the highly historic Mizo Peace Accord signed in 1986 between the Government of India and the Mizo National Front.
Elevation to Statehood: Following the successful signing of the peace accord and the subsequent constitutional amendment officially guaranteeing special cultural and legal protections, the Union Territory of Mizoram was officially elevated to the prestigious status of a full-fledged State within the Indian Union in 1987, satisfying long-standing local political aspirations.
Safeguarding Customary Autonomy: Closely mirroring the specific legal protections granted previously to Nagaland, Article 371G acts as an impenetrable constitutional shield for Mizo identity. It strictly stipulates that Acts of the Indian Parliament relating to Mizo religious or social practices, and Mizo customary law, shall not automatically apply to Mizoram without the explicit ratification of the Mizoram Legislative Assembly.

📌 Quick Summary — Polity Set 161

Fundamental Rights: Doctrine of Laches does not strictly apply to Article 32 petitions.
Judiciary: Impeachment requires 100 Lok Sabha or 50 Rajya Sabha members. Union Law Minister cannot be on the investigating committee.
Supreme Court: Article 143 deals with Advisory Jurisdiction. The court is only legally bound on pre-constitution treaty matters.
Local Bodies: PESA Act was based on the recommendations of the Bhuria Committee.
Forest Rights Act (FRA): The Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the rights determination process.
Statutory Bodies: NCW established in 1990. NCPCR operates under MWCD. CCI replaced MRTP in 2003.
Corporate Tribunals: NCLT and NCLAT were constituted under the Companies Act, 2013.
Defense & Security: CDS is a Four-star General. Prime Minister heads the NSC. SPG is the core coordination mechanism.
Constitutional Amendments (Rights & Directives): 24th gave Parliament power to amend Fundamental Rights. 25th gave primacy to specific DPSPs over Articles 14, 19, and 31. 42nd expansion of DPSP primacy was struck down by Minerva Mills.
Constitutional Amendments (Institutions & Emergency): 42nd inserted Part XIV-A (Tribunals). 44th replaced “Internal Disturbance” with “Armed Rebellion” and required Cabinet advice.
Constitutional Amendments (Modern Era): 86th made primary education a Right. 91st capped Council of Ministers at 15%. 97th added Part IX-B for Co-operatives.
Constitutional Amendments (Recent): 101st established GST Council (Art 279A). 102nd gave constitutional status to NCBC. 103rd allowed EWS reservation (Art 15 & 16). 104th ended Anglo-Indian nominations.
Special Provisions (Part XXI): Article 371 relates to Maharashtra & Gujarat boards. Article 371A empowers Nagaland’s assembly over customary laws. Article 371G similarly protects Mizoram.

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Polity Set 161

Q.1) The legal “Doctrine of Laches” essentially states that courts will not help people who sleep on their rights. However, the Supreme Court has generally ruled that this doctrine does NOT strictly apply to petitions filed under which Article?

Q.2) Under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, a motion for the removal (impeachment) of a Supreme Court or High Court judge requires the signatures of at least how many members if introduced in the Lok Sabha?

Q.3) Under the same Act, a motion for the removal of a judge requires the signatures of at least how many members if introduced in the Rajya Sabha?

Q.4) Once the motion is admitted by the Speaker/Chairman, a three-member committee is constituted to investigate the charges against the judge. Which of the following is NOT typically a member of this committee?

Q.5) Which Article grants the President of India the power to refer any matter of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion?

Q.6) Is the Supreme Court bound to give its opinion to the President on all matters referred to it under Article 143?

Q.7) Which committee’s recommendations paved the way for the enactment of the PESA Act (Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996)?

Q.8) The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006. Under this Act, who is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights?

Q.9) Which statutory body was established in 1990 to protect and promote the interests of women in India, and to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women?

Q.10) The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was established in 2007 as a statutory body under the CPCR Act, 2005. It operates under the administrative control of which Ministry?

Q.11) Which statutory authority was established in 2003, replacing the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Commission, to prevent practices having an adverse effect on economic competition?

Q.12) The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) were constituted under the provisions of which Act?

Q.13) In 2019, the Government of India created the post of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) to act as the principal military advisor to the Defence Minister. The CDS is a:

Q.14) The National Security Council (NSC) of India is the apex agency looking into the country’s political, economic, energy, and strategic security concerns. It is headed by the:

Q.15) What is the Strategic Policy Group (SPG)?

Q.16) Which Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) made it clear that the Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, under Article 368?

Q.17) The 25th Amendment Act (1971) inserted Article 31C. It gave primacy to the Directive Principles contained in Article 39(b) and (c) over the Fundamental Rights contained in Articles:

Q.18) The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) attempted to extend the scope of Article 31C by giving primacy to all Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights. Which landmark Supreme Court case struck down this specific expansion?

Q.19) Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted a new Part XIV-A (Tribunals) containing Articles 323A and 323B?

Q.20) The 44th Amendment Act (1978) substituted the term “Internal Disturbance” with “Armed Rebellion” in Article 352. It also required that a National Emergency can only be declared by the President on the written advice of the:

Q.21) Which Amendment Act is recognized for making primary education a Fundamental Right (Article 21A) and adding the 11th Fundamental Duty?

Q.22) Which Constitutional Amendment Act restricted the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha / State Legislative Assembly?

Q.23) The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act (2011) gave constitutional status to Co-operative Societies. It added which new Part to the Constitution?

Q.24) The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act (2016) introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST). Which new Article was inserted to establish the GST Council?

Q.25) Which Constitutional Amendment Act granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)?

Q.26) The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act (2019) provided for a maximum of 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). It amended which two Articles of the Constitution?

Q.27) The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act (2020) extended political reservations for SCs and STs for another ten years, but officially ended the provision for nominating members of which community to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies?

Q.28) Article 371 of the Constitution makes special provisions for the establishment of separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada, Saurashtra, and Kutch in the states of:

Q.29) Article 371A gives special provisions to the state of Nagaland. Under this Article, acts of Parliament relating to Naga religious or social practices do not apply unless approved by the:

Q.30) Article 371G provides similar protections regarding Mizo religious or social practices and Mizo customary law for the state of:

📌 Quick Summary — Polity Set 161

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Q.1) The legal “Doctrine of Laches” essentially states that courts will not help people who sleep on their rights. However, the Supreme Court has generally ruled that this doctrine does NOT strictly apply to petitions filed under which Article?

Q.2) Under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, a motion for the removal (impeachment) of a Supreme Court or High Court judge requires the signatures of at least how many members if introduced in the Lok Sabha?

Q.3) Under the same Act, a motion for the removal of a judge requires the signatures of at least how many members if introduced in the Rajya Sabha?

Q.4) Once the motion is admitted by the Speaker/Chairman, a three-member committee is constituted to investigate the charges against the judge. Which of the following is NOT typically a member of this committee?

Q.5) Which Article grants the President of India the power to refer any matter of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion?

Q.6) Is the Supreme Court bound to give its opinion to the President on all matters referred to it under Article 143?

Q.7) Which committee’s recommendations paved the way for the enactment of the PESA Act (Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996)?

Q.8) The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006. Under this Act, who is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights?

Q.9) Which statutory body was established in 1990 to protect and promote the interests of women in India, and to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women?

Q.10) The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was established in 2007 as a statutory body under the CPCR Act, 2005. It operates under the administrative control of which Ministry?

Q.11) Which statutory authority was established in 2003, replacing the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Commission, to prevent practices having an adverse effect on economic competition?

Q.12) The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) were constituted under the provisions of which Act?

Q.13) In 2019, the Government of India created the post of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) to act as the principal military advisor to the Defence Minister. The CDS is a:

Q.14) The National Security Council (NSC) of India is the apex agency looking into the country’s political, economic, energy, and strategic security concerns. It is headed by the:

Q.15) What is the Strategic Policy Group (SPG)?

Q.16) Which Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) made it clear that the Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, under Article 368?

Q.17) The 25th Amendment Act (1971) inserted Article 31C. It gave primacy to the Directive Principles contained in Article 39(b) and (c) over the Fundamental Rights contained in Articles:

Q.18) The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) attempted to extend the scope of Article 31C by giving primacy to all Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights. Which landmark Supreme Court case struck down this specific expansion?

Q.19) Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted a new Part XIV-A (Tribunals) containing Articles 323A and 323B?

Q.20) The 44th Amendment Act (1978) substituted the term “Internal Disturbance” with “Armed Rebellion” in Article 352. It also required that a National Emergency can only be declared by the President on the written advice of the:

Q.21) Which Amendment Act is recognized for making primary education a Fundamental Right (Article 21A) and adding the 11th Fundamental Duty?

Q.22) Which Constitutional Amendment Act restricted the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha / State Legislative Assembly?

Q.23) The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act (2011) gave constitutional status to Co-operative Societies. It added which new Part to the Constitution?

Q.24) The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act (2016) introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST). Which new Article was inserted to establish the GST Council?

Q.25) Which Constitutional Amendment Act granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)?

Q.26) The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act (2019) provided for a maximum of 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). It amended which two Articles of the Constitution?

Q.27) The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act (2020) extended political reservations for SCs and STs for another ten years, but officially ended the provision for nominating members of which community to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies?

Q.28) Article 371 of the Constitution makes special provisions for the establishment of separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada, Saurashtra, and Kutch in the states of:

Q.29) Article 371A gives special provisions to the state of Nagaland. Under this Article, acts of Parliament relating to Naga religious or social practices do not apply unless approved by the:

Q.30) Article 371G provides similar protections regarding Mizo religious or social practices and Mizo customary law for the state of:

📌 Quick Summary — Polity Set 161

Leave a Comment Cancel Reply

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