Polity Set 178 | MROY Class

Polity Set 178 Questions & Answers

The Constitution mandates under Article 151 that the CAG’s audit reports be submitted to the President. Who lays these reports before the State Legislature in the case of state accounts? – The Governor of the State
The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the President. Their conditions of service and tenure are determined by the: – Parliament (through the Election Commission Act, 1991, recently updated in 2023)
While the CEC can only be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge, how can the other Election Commissioners be removed from office? – By the President ONLY on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner
Article 280 states that the Finance Commission shall consist of a Chairman and four other members. The qualifications for these members and the manner of their selection are determined by the: – Parliament by law
Under Article 316, the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) are appointed by the President. If the office of the Chairman becomes vacant, who appoints an acting Chairman? – The President of India
The Chairman or any member of the UPSC can only be removed by the President on the ground of “misbehavior” after an inquiry conducted by the: – Supreme Court of India
In the case of a State Public Service Commission (SPSC), the Chairman and members are appointed by the Governor. Who has the authority to remove them on the ground of misbehavior? – The President of India (after a Supreme Court inquiry)
The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act (2003) bifurcated the combined National Commission for SCs and STs. Article 338 now deals with the NCSC. Which Article deals with the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST)? – Article 338A
The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act (2018) granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC). Which Article governs its composition and functions? – Article 338B
Under Article 344, the President is empowered to constitute an Official Language Commission at the expiration of five years from the commencement of the Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of ten years. The first such commission was constituted in 1955 under the chairmanship of: – B.G. Kher
Article 350B mandates the appointment of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. This post was created via which Constitutional Amendment Act? – 7th Amendment Act (1956)
The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 in 1990 based on the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission. Which of the following bodies is NOT a statutory body (created by an Act of Parliament)? – Inter-State Council
The Zonal Councils were established by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. The North Eastern Council (NEC), which includes the 8 northeastern states, was established by the NEC Act in which year? – 1971
The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established in 1964 via an executive resolution. Following a landmark Supreme Court directive in the Vineet Narain case (1997), it was granted statutory status by Parliament in which year? – 2003
The Central Information Commission (CIC) is a statutory body constituted under the Right to Information Act in which year? – 2005
NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India. It was established on January 1, 2015, via: – An Executive Resolution of the Union Cabinet
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body established in 1993. Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, the NHRC cannot inquire into any matter after the expiry of how much time from the date on which the human rights violation allegedly occurred? – 1 year
The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 aims to combat corruption at high levels. The Chairperson of the Lokpal must be a former Chief Justice of India, a former Supreme Court Judge, or an eminent person with at least how many years of expertise in anti-corruption policy, public administration, or finance? – 25 years
The Disaster Management Act was passed to ensure a coordinated response to natural and man-made disasters. In which year was this Act passed? – 2005
The National Investigation Agency (NIA), India’s premier counter-terror task force, was created by the NIA Act following the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks. The Act was passed in: – 2008
Article 310 outlines the “Doctrine of Pleasure”. However, this doctrine is restricted by Article 311, which provides that a civil servant must be given a “reasonable opportunity of being heard” concerning the charges against them. This constitutional safeguard is available to: – Members of civil services of the Union and States
Article 311’s protection of a “reasonable opportunity of being heard” has three specific exceptions. Under these exceptions, an inquiry is NOT required if: – All of the above
Under Article 312, if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to create a new All-India Service, who actually enacts the law to create it? – The Parliament
The Right to Property, originally a fundamental right under Articles 19(1)(f) and 31, was made a constitutional right under Article 300A by the 44th Amendment Act. Under which Part of the Constitution is Article 300A located? – Part XII
If a political party wins 2% of the seats in the Lok Sabha (currently 11 seats) drawn from at least 3 different states, it is recognized by the Election Commission as a: – National Party
Under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, certain intelligence and security organizations are exempt from disclosing information, EXCEPT when the information pertains to allegations of: – Corruption or human rights violations
According to the Constitution, the total number of Ministers in the State Council of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly. However, it shall not be less than: – 12
Article 131 grants original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court for federal disputes. Does this jurisdiction cover a dispute between a State Government and a private citizen? – No, such disputes are explicitly excluded from Article 131
The concept of “Judicial Review” in the Indian Constitution is implicitly established by multiple articles, but which Article serves as its fundamental bedrock by declaring laws inconsistent with Part III as void? – Article 13
Finally, which Article definitively states that the “executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution”? – Article 53

MROY Class

Polity Set 178

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📌 Polity • Constitutional Authorities

Q.1) The Constitution mandates under Article 151 that the CAG’s audit reports be submitted to the President. Who lays these reports before the State Legislature in the case of state accounts?

Ans > The Governor of the State

Constitutional Mandate and Article 151: Under Article 151 of the Indian Constitution, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is required to submit audit reports relating to the accounts of a State directly to the Governor of that respective State. The Governor is then constitutionally obligated to cause these critical financial reports to be laid before the State Legislature. This mechanism ensures that the state’s financial activities are subject to transparent legislative scrutiny.
Role of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC): Once the Governor lays the CAG’s report before the State Legislature, the legislative review process begins. The report is handed over to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) of the state legislature. The PAC thoroughly examines the audit findings, questions state executive officials, and ensures strict financial accountability and propriety.
Upholding the Federal Structure: This reporting procedure perfectly highlights India’s unique federal structure. Although the CAG is a unitary, federal authority appointed by the President of India to ensure absolute uniformity in national auditing standards, the financial autonomy of the states is respected by submitting state-level reports to the Governor rather than the President or Union Government.

📌 Polity • Election Commission

Q.2) The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the President. Their conditions of service and tenure are determined by the:

Ans > Parliament (through the Election Commission Act, 1991, recently updated in 2023)

Parliamentary Authority under Article 324: While Article 324 of the Constitution establishes the Election Commission and vests the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections in it, it does not explicitly detail the service conditions. Instead, Article 324(5) explicitly leaves it to the Parliament to enact laws determining the conditions of service and the tenure of office for the Election Commissioners.
The Legislative Framework and 2023 Update: Parliament initially exercised this power by passing The Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991. This act aligned their salaries with Supreme Court judges. Recently, this framework was overhauled by the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, which updated the selection committee and service conditions.
Balancing Independence and Accountability: The reliance on parliamentary law rather than executive decree is designed to insulate the Election Commission from arbitrary changes by the ruling government. By requiring a formal act of Parliament to alter their service conditions, the system attempts to safeguard the institutional independence necessary for conducting free and fair democratic elections.

📌 Polity • Election Commission

Q.3) While the CEC can only be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge, how can the other Election Commissioners be removed from office?

Ans > By the President ONLY on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner

Security of Tenure for the CEC: The Constitution provides robust security of tenure to the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) to ensure independence. Under Article 324(5), the CEC can only be removed from office in the exact same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court, which requires a highly complex impeachment process by Parliament involving a special majority.
Differentiated Removal Process: The Constitution makes a clear distinction between the CEC and the other Election Commissioners (ECs). Other ECs and Regional Commissioners do not enjoy the same stringent constitutional protection. They can be removed by the President of India, but this is strictly conditional upon receiving a binding recommendation for removal from the CEC.
Rationale Behind the Distinction: This structural asymmetry was designed to protect the core integrity of the Election Commission while allowing internal disciplinary control. In the landmark T.N. Seshan vs. Union of India case, the Supreme Court upheld this difference, explaining that the CEC’s recommendation acts as a vital shield to prevent the executive from arbitrarily removing inconvenient Election Commissioners without the consent of the institution’s head.

📌 Polity • Finance Commission

Q.4) Article 280 states that the Finance Commission shall consist of a Chairman and four other members. The qualifications for these members and the manner of their selection are determined by the:

Ans > Parliament by law

Constitutional Delegation to Parliament: Article 280 of the Indian Constitution mandates the creation of a Finance Commission every five years to handle federal tax devolution. However, the Constitution itself does not prescribe the specific educational or professional qualifications required to become the Chairman or a member. Instead, Article 280(2) explicitly grants Parliament the authority to determine these qualifications by law.
The Finance Commission Act of 1951: Exercising this constitutional mandate, Parliament enacted the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act in 1951. This specific statute laid down the precise qualifications. For example, it dictates that the Chairman must be a person with experience in public affairs, while the four members must be selected from fields like high court judiciary, government finance, administration, or economics.
Ensuring Expert Composition: By delegating this power to the legislature, the framers ensured that the Finance Commission would always be staffed by highly qualified subject-matter experts rather than political appointees. This expertise is absolutely crucial because the Commission’s primary job is to mathematically and fairly divide the net tax proceeds between the Union government and the diverse State governments.

📌 Polity • UPSC

Q.5) Under Article 316, the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) are appointed by the President. If the office of the Chairman becomes vacant, who appoints an acting Chairman?

Ans > The President of India

Presidential Authority Over Appointments: Under Article 316 of the Constitution, the power to appoint the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) lies exclusively with the President of India. Because the UPSC is the central recruiting agency for the nation’s premier civil services, the executive head of the state is entrusted with ensuring its proper constitution and continuous functioning.
Provisions for an Acting Chairman: Article 316(1A) specifically deals with unexpected vacancies. If the office of the Chairman becomes vacant (due to death, resignation, or removal) or if the Chairman is unable to perform their duties due to absence or any other reason, the Constitution empowers the President of India to appoint one of the existing members of the Commission to serve as the acting Chairman.
Continuity of Administrative Functions: The provision for an acting Chairman is crucial for preventing administrative paralysis. The UPSC conducts massive, time-sensitive nationwide examinations and advises the government on critical disciplinary matters. Presidential intervention to quickly appoint an acting Chairman ensures that this vital constitutional machinery does not stall while waiting for a permanent replacement to be found.

📌 Polity • UPSC

Q.6) The Chairman or any member of the UPSC can only be removed by the President on the ground of “misbehavior” after an inquiry conducted by the:

Ans > Supreme Court of India

Constitutional Safeguards under Article 317: To ensure the absolute neutrality and independence of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), Article 317 provides a highly rigid removal procedure. The President can only remove the Chairman or a member on the specific ground of “misbehavior,” but the executive cannot unilaterally determine what constitutes misbehavior to prevent political victimization.
Mandatory Supreme Court Inquiry: When an allegation of misbehavior arises, the President must refer the matter directly to the Supreme Court of India. The Supreme Court conducts a thorough, impartial judicial inquiry into the charges based on the procedure prescribed under Article 145. Only if the Supreme Court upholds the charges and advises removal can the President officially dismiss the member.
President’s Power of Suspension: While the President cannot remove the member without the Supreme Court’s affirmative report, the Constitution provides an interim administrative measure. During the pendency of the Supreme Court’s inquiry, the President possesses the authority to suspend the accused Chairman or member from their duties to ensure the integrity of the UPSC is maintained until the final judicial verdict is delivered.

📌 Polity • SPSC

Q.7) In the case of a State Public Service Commission (SPSC), the Chairman and members are appointed by the Governor. Who has the authority to remove them on the ground of misbehavior?

Ans > The President of India (after a Supreme Court inquiry)

Asymmetry in Appointment and Removal: The Constitution creates a unique and deliberate asymmetry regarding the State Public Service Commission (SPSC). While the Governor of the state has the executive authority to appoint the Chairman and members of the SPSC under Article 316, the Governor absolutely lacks the constitutional power to remove them from their posts, even on proven grounds of misbehavior.
Presidential Authority Over Removal: Under Article 317, the power of removal for SPSC members is identically aligned with that of the UPSC. Only the President of India can remove an SPSC member. Furthermore, just like the UPSC, this removal must be preceded by a mandatory judicial inquiry conducted by the Supreme Court of India, which must formally recommend the dismissal.
Protection Against Local Political Interference: This distinct separation between the appointing authority and the removing authority is a vital constitutional safeguard. It deliberately insulates SPSC members from the immediate pressures of state-level politics. If a Governor (acting on the advice of the Chief Minister) could fire SPSC members, it could lead to severe political manipulation of state civil service recruitment.

📌 Polity • Constitutional Commissions

Q.8) The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act (2003) bifurcated the combined National Commission for SCs and STs. Article 338 now deals with the NCSC. Which Article deals with the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST)?

Ans > Article 338A

Historical Context and the 89th Amendment: Originally, Article 338 of the Constitution provided for a single Special Officer, which later evolved into a combined National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. However, recognizing that the socio-economic and cultural needs of Scheduled Tribes were distinctly different from Scheduled Castes, Parliament passed the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act in 2003 to officially bifurcate the body.
Creation of Article 338A: The bifurcation resulted in the amendment of Article 338 (which was restricted to solely deal with the National Commission for Scheduled Castes) and the insertion of a brand new constitutional provision: Article 338A. This new article established the independent National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST), granting it dedicated constitutional status and specific mandates.
Mandate and Powers of the NCST: The NCST, created under Article 338A, is tasked with investigating and monitoring all matters relating to the constitutional safeguards provided for Scheduled Tribes. It has the powers of a civil court trying a suit and must be consulted by the Union and State governments on all major policy matters affecting the tribal populations across India.

📌 Polity • Constitutional Commissions

Q.9) The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act (2018) granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC). Which Article governs its composition and functions?

Ans > Article 338B

From Statutory to Constitutional Body: The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially set up as a mere statutory body under the NCBC Act of 1993, following the Supreme Court’s mandate in the landmark Indra Sawhney (Mandal Commission) case. For decades, it lacked the sweeping powers enjoyed by the SC and ST commissions. This changed dramatically with the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2018.
Insertion of Article 338B: The 102nd Amendment formally repealed the 1993 Act and inserted Article 338B into the Indian Constitution. This new article formally elevated the NCBC to a constitutional body, placing it on exactly equal footing with the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (Article 338) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (Article 338A).
Enhanced Investigative Powers: Under Article 338B, the NCBC is now empowered not just to recommend inclusions or exclusions from the central list of backward classes, but to thoroughly investigate grievances and monitor safeguards provided to the Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs). It functions with the authority of a civil court when inquiring into complaints of rights violations.

📌 Polity • Official Language

Q.10) Under Article 344, the President is empowered to constitute an Official Language Commission at the expiration of five years from the commencement of the Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of ten years. The first such commission was constituted in 1955 under the chairmanship of:

Ans > B.G. Kher

The Mandate of Article 344: Article 344 of the Indian Constitution laid out a clear roadmap for the gradual transition from English to Hindi for official government purposes. It required the President of India to constitute an Official Language Commission five years after the Constitution’s commencement to make recommendations on the progressive use of Hindi and the restriction of English.
The B.G. Kher Commission (1955): Fulfilling this constitutional obligation, the very first Official Language Commission was established in 1955. It was chaired by B.G. Kher, the former Chief Minister of Bombay State. The Kher Commission was tasked with navigating complex linguistic sensitivities and submitted a comprehensive report in 1956 detailing strategies for linguistic integration in official communications.
Parliamentary Review by G.B. Pant: The recommendations made by the B.G. Kher Commission were not implemented unilaterally. As dictated by the Constitution, the report was scrutinized by a special Parliamentary Committee on Official Language, which was constituted in 1957 and headed by the prominent leader Govind Ballabh Pant, ensuring legislative consensus on the sensitive issue of national language policy.

📌 Polity • Minorities

Q.11) Article 350B mandates the appointment of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. This post was created via which Constitutional Amendment Act?

Ans > 7th Amendment Act (1956)

Context of the States Reorganisation: In the early 1950s, India underwent a massive territorial restructuring based on linguistic lines, guided by the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) of 1953-55. The SRC recognized that creating linguistic states would inevitably leave behind linguistic minorities in every state, whose cultural and educational rights required dedicated constitutional protection.
Enactment of the 7th Amendment: Acting strictly on the robust recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission, Parliament passed the landmark 7th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1956. This sweeping amendment not only reorganized the states but also inserted a brand new provision, Article 350B, specifically designed to safeguard the interests of linguistic minority groups across the country.
Role of the Special Officer: Article 350B mandates the President of India to appoint a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. The primary duty of this officer is to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution and to submit regular reports directly to the President, which are subsequently laid before both Houses of Parliament.

📌 Polity • Constitutional Bodies

Q.12) The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 in 1990 based on the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission. Which of the following bodies is NOT a statutory body (created by an Act of Parliament)?

Ans > Inter-State Council

Constitutional Origin under Article 263: The Inter-State Council (ISC) stands distinct from the other options because it is a Constitutional Body. Article 263 explicitly empowers the President of India to establish such a council to investigate and discuss subjects of common interest between the Union and the States, fostering cooperative federalism through a formally recognized constitutional mechanism.
The Sarkaria Commission’s Influence: Despite being provided for in the Constitution in 1950, the Inter-State Council was not actually established for four decades. It was only strongly recommended by the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations (1983-88) that the V.P. Singh government finally issued a Presidential Order in 1990 to permanently constitute the ISC.
Contrasting with Statutory Bodies: In sharp contrast, the Zonal Councils were created by the States Reorganisation Act (1956), the North Eastern Council by the NEC Act (1971), and the National Green Tribunal by the NGT Act (2010). Because these three were created by ordinary parliamentary legislation, they are classified as statutory bodies, not constitutional ones like the ISC.

📌 Polity • Zonal Councils

Q.13) The Zonal Councils were established by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. The North Eastern Council (NEC), which includes the 8 northeastern states, was established by the NEC Act in which year?

Ans > 1971

Distinct Origin from Zonal Councils: While five Zonal Councils (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western, and Southern) were established simultaneously under Part III of the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, the northeastern states were deliberately excluded from this initial framework. Due to the unique geographical, ethnic, and developmental challenges of the northeast, a separate institutional mechanism was required.
Enactment of the NEC Act, 1971: To address these specific regional needs, Parliament enacted a separate piece of legislation: The North Eastern Council Act, 1971. This act officially established the North Eastern Council (NEC) as an independent statutory advisory body to facilitate coordinated economic and social planning across the highly sensitive and strategic northeastern frontier of India.
Expansion to Include Sikkim: Originally, the North Eastern Council comprised only seven states, famously known as the “Seven Sisters” (Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, and Mizoram). However, recognizing its geopolitical integration with the region, the NEC Act was amended in 2002 to officially add Sikkim as the eighth member state of the Council.

📌 Polity • Statutory Bodies

Q.14) The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established in 1964 via an executive resolution. Following a landmark Supreme Court directive in the Vineet Narain case (1997), it was granted statutory status by Parliament in which year?

Ans > 2003

Origins and Executive Resolution: The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was originally established in 1964 by a simple executive resolution of the Government of India. This was done based on the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption, aimed at advising and guiding Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance and anti-corruption.
The Catalyst: Vineet Narain Case (1997): For decades, the CVC operated purely as an advisory body without statutory backing. This changed drastically with the Supreme Court’s landmark judgment in the Vineet Narain case (Hawala scandal) in 1997. The Court issued sweeping directives to free investigative agencies from political interference, specifically ordering that the CVC must be granted independent statutory status.
Enactment of the CVC Act, 2003: In compliance with the Supreme Court’s strict directives, the Parliament eventually passed the Central Vigilance Commission Act in 2003. This legislation officially elevated the CVC to a powerful multi-member statutory body, explicitly empowering it with the superintendence over the CBI in matters related to offenses under the Prevention of Corruption Act.

📌 Polity • Statutory Bodies

Q.15) The Central Information Commission (CIC) is a statutory body constituted under the Right to Information Act in which year?

Ans > 2005

Enactment of the RTI Act, 2005: The Central Information Commission (CIC) is fundamentally tied to the passage of one of India’s most empowering legislations: the Right to Information (RTI) Act, which was enacted in 2005. The Act replaced the weaker Freedom of Information Act of 2002, ushering in a new era of transparency and accountability in government administration.
Establishment of the CIC Mechanism: Under the provisions of the 2005 RTI Act, the central government was mandated to constitute the Central Information Commission as an independent statutory body. It serves as the highest appellate authority for information-seekers, holding jurisdiction over all central public authorities and possessing the powers of a civil court to summon documents and officials.
Composition and Independence: The CIC consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and up to ten Information Commissioners. To ensure their independence from the executive branches they monitor, they are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a high-level committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a nominated Union Cabinet Minister.

📌 Polity • Extra-Constitutional Bodies

Q.16) NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India. It was established on January 1, 2015, via:

Ans > An Executive Resolution of the Union Cabinet

Dissolution of the Planning Commission: For 65 years, the Planning Commission heavily dictated India’s economic path through centralized, top-down Five-Year Plans. However, viewing it as a relic of the socialist era that stifled state-level innovation, the government dissolved the Planning Commission in 2014 to pave the way for a more dynamic and modern institutional framework.
Formation via Executive Resolution: Like its predecessor, the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) was not created by an Act of Parliament (making it a non-statutory body) nor is it mentioned in the Constitution (making it a non-constitutional body). It was formed entirely through an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015.
Shift to Cooperative Federalism: The core philosophy behind creating NITI Aayog was to shift from a “top-down” prescriptive approach to “bottom-up” cooperative federalism. Unlike the Planning Commission, NITI Aayog explicitly includes the Chief Ministers of all states and Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories in its Governing Council, ensuring states are equal partners in national policy formulation.

📌 Polity • Human Rights

Q.17) The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body established in 1993. Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, the NHRC cannot inquire into any matter after the expiry of how much time from the date on which the human rights violation allegedly occurred?

Ans > 1 year

Statutory Framework of the NHRC: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993. It was created to act as a specialized watchdog to protect and promote human rights in India. However, the Parliament placed specific jurisdictional boundaries on the Commission’s investigative powers to ensure administrative efficiency.
The Strict One-Year Limitation Clause: Section 36(2) of the Protection of Human Rights Act explicitly restricts the NHRC’s temporal jurisdiction. It states that the Commission shall not inquire into any matter after the expiry of strictly one year from the date on which the act constituting the violation of human rights is alleged to have been committed.
Rationale and Criticism of the Time Bar: The legislative intent behind this one-year limitation was to ensure prompt reporting of abuses and to prevent the resurrection of stale cases where evidence might be lost or compromised. However, human rights activists heavily criticize this clause, arguing it unfairly punishes victims who may have been too traumatized or unlawfully detained to file complaints within twelve months.

📌 Polity • Anti-Corruption

Q.18) The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 aims to combat corruption at high levels. The Chairperson of the Lokpal must be a former Chief Justice of India, a former Supreme Court Judge, or an eminent person with at least how many years of expertise in anti-corruption policy, public administration, or finance?

Ans > 25 years

The Enactment of the 2013 Act: Following massive nationwide anti-corruption protests led by civil society groups (the India Against Corruption movement), Parliament finally enacted the historic Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act in 2013. This act established a powerful ombudsman institution (Lokpal) at the Union level to investigate allegations of corruption against public functionaries, including the Prime Minister.
Stringent Qualifications for the Chairperson: Because the Lokpal investigates the highest echelons of power, the Act sets exceptionally rigorous qualifications for its Chairperson. The Chairperson must either be a former Chief Justice of India, a former Judge of the Supreme Court, or an “eminent person” possessing an impeccable track record and minimum 25 years of specialized knowledge and expertise.
Domain Expertise Requirement: If the Chairperson is selected from the “eminent person” category, their 25 years of required expertise must specifically be in fields directly related to the Lokpal’s mandate. The Act explicitly lists these fields as anti-corruption policy, public administration, vigilance, finance, law, or management, ensuring the institution is led by highly experienced veterans.

📌 Polity • Statutory Acts

Q.19) The Disaster Management Act was passed to ensure a coordinated response to natural and man-made disasters. In which year was this Act passed?

Ans > 2005

Catalyst for the Legislation: Prior to the early 2000s, India’s disaster management strategy was largely reactive, focusing primarily on post-disaster relief and rehabilitation handled mostly by the Agriculture Ministry. The devastating 2004 Indian Ocean Tsunami served as a massive wake-up call, exposing severe systemic weaknesses and highlighting the urgent need for a dedicated, comprehensive legal framework.
Enactment and Institutional Framework: In response, Parliament enacted the Disaster Management Act in December 2005. This groundbreaking legislation shifted the paradigm from a reactive approach to a proactive, holistic strategy involving mitigation, preparedness, and coordinated response. It transferred the primary nodal responsibility to the Ministry of Home Affairs.
The Three-Tier Mechanism: The 2005 Act established a highly structured three-tier institutional mechanism to manage emergencies. It created the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) headed by the Prime Minister, State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs) headed by Chief Ministers, and District Disaster Management Authorities (DDMAs) headed by District Collectors, ensuring coordination from the central government down to the grassroots.

📌 Polity • Law Enforcement Agencies

Q.20) The National Investigation Agency (NIA), India’s premier counter-terror task force, was created by the NIA Act following the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks. The Act was passed in:

Ans > 2008

The Turning Point of 26/11: For decades, terrorism cases in India were largely investigated by state police forces, leading to fragmented intelligence and jurisdictional hurdles. The catastrophic 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks in 2008 ruthlessly exposed the inability of state apparatuses to handle complex, highly coordinated international terrorist networks without specialized central intervention.
Rapid Legislative Action (2008): In the immediate aftermath of the Mumbai attacks, there was a massive national consensus for a dedicated federal counter-terrorism agency. Moving with unprecedented speed, Parliament passed the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act in December 2008, establishing the NIA as India’s premier central counter-terrorism law enforcement agency.
Unique Jurisdictional Powers: The most significant feature of the 2008 NIA Act is that it grants the agency concurrent jurisdiction. Unlike the CBI, which requires permission from state governments to investigate within their borders, the NIA has the statutory authority to take over any terror-related case anywhere in the country without needing special permission from the respective state government.

📌 Polity • Services under Union & States

Q.21) Article 310 outlines the “Doctrine of Pleasure”. However, this doctrine is restricted by Article 311, which provides that a civil servant must be given a “reasonable opportunity of being heard” concerning the charges against them. This constitutional safeguard is available to:

Ans > Members of civil services of the Union and States

The Doctrine of Pleasure (Article 310): Derived from English common law, Article 310 states that every person working in a civil or military capacity holds their office strictly during the “pleasure of the President” (for Union services) or the “pleasure of the Governor” (for State services). In theory, this allows the state to dismiss employees at will.
Safeguards Provided by Article 311: To prevent arbitrary dismissal and ensure administrative fairness, the Constitution explicitly curtails the Doctrine of Pleasure through Article 311. It provides two massive safeguards: a civil servant cannot be dismissed by an authority subordinate to the one that appointed them, and they must be given a “reasonable opportunity of being heard” regarding the charges.
Exclusion of Defense Personnel: The protections of Article 311 are strictly limited to members of the civil services of the Union or States and those holding civil posts. The Constitution expressly excludes members of the defense services and those holding civilian posts connected with defense. Military discipline demands swift action, so defense personnel are governed entirely by separate military laws without Article 311 protections.

📌 Polity • Services under Union & States

Q.22) Article 311’s protection of a “reasonable opportunity of being heard” has three specific exceptions. Under these exceptions, an inquiry is NOT required if:

Ans > All of the above

The Criminal Conviction Clause: While Article 311 protects civil servants from arbitrary dismissal without an inquiry, the Constitution recognizes situations where an inquiry is redundant. Under Article 311(2)(a), if a civil servant is dismissed or reduced in rank based purely on a conviction on a criminal charge by a court of law, a departmental inquiry is explicitly not required.
The Impracticability Clause: Article 311(2)(b) provides a practical exception. If the disciplinary authority determines that holding an inquiry is “not reasonably practicable” (for example, if witnesses are terrified to testify due to the accused employee’s violence or intimidation), the authority can skip the inquiry. However, they must record the specific reasons for this impracticability in writing.
The State Security Clause: The highest exception lies in Article 311(2)(c). If the President or the Governor is thoroughly satisfied that in the overarching interest of the security of the State, it is not expedient to hold a public or departmental inquiry (e.g., involving espionage or deep terrorism links), the civil servant can be instantly dismissed without any hearing.

📌 Polity • All-India Services

Q.23) Under Article 312, if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to create a new All-India Service, who actually enacts the law to create it?

Ans > The Parliament

The Special Power of the Rajya Sabha: Article 312 of the Constitution provides a unique mechanism for creating new All-India Services (like the IAS, IPS, and IFoS). Recognizing that these services heavily impact state administration, the Constitution grants exclusive initiating power to the Rajya Sabha (the Council of States). The Rajya Sabha must first pass a resolution supported by a special majority declaring that it is necessary in the national interest.
Parliamentary Enactment Requirement: However, the Rajya Sabha’s resolution does not magically create the service on its own. The resolution merely acts as a constitutional green light. Once the resolution is successfully passed, Article 312 strictly empowers the Parliament of India to actually enact the necessary legislation to create and regulate the new All-India Service.
Balancing Federalism and Unitary Bias: This two-step process brilliantly balances federalism with national requirements. Because All-India Service officers are recruited by the Centre but serve in the States, creating a new service inherently tilts power toward the Union. Requiring the Rajya Sabha (representing the states) to initiate the process ensures that state interests are politically protected before Parliament drafts the law.

📌 Polity • Fundamental & Legal Rights

Q.24) The Right to Property, originally a fundamental right under Articles 19(1)(f) and 31, was made a constitutional right under Article 300A by the 44th Amendment Act. Under which Part of the Constitution is Article 300A located?

Ans > Part XII

Historical Context and the 44th Amendment: In the original Constitution, the Right to Property was a Fundamental Right protected under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31. However, this caused massive legal hurdles for the government’s land reform and socialist economic agenda. To resolve this, the Morarji Desai government passed the 44th Amendment Act in 1978, completely abolishing property as a Fundamental Right.
Insertion into Part XII: While stripped of its fundamental status, the right to property was not entirely deleted from the Constitution. The 44th Amendment inserted a new provision, Article 300A, which simply states: “No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.” This new article was deliberately placed in Part XII, which deals with “Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits.”
Implications of a “Constitutional Right”: By shifting it to Part XII, the right to property became a mere Constitutional Right (or legal right). The major legal consequence of this shift is that citizens can no longer directly approach the Supreme Court under Article 32 (writ jurisdiction for fundamental rights) if their property is acquired by the government; they must use ordinary legal channels.

📌 Polity • Political Parties

Q.25) If a political party wins 2% of the seats in the Lok Sabha (currently 11 seats) drawn from at least 3 different states, it is recognized by the Election Commission as a:

Ans > National Party

The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968: The Election Commission of India relies on the Election Symbols Order of 1968 to recognize political parties and allocate election symbols. The rules establish very strict, mathematical criteria that a party must fulfill in general elections to be elevated from a state party to the prestigious status of a “National Party.”
The “2% in 3 States” Criterion: One of the three main pathways to achieving National Party status requires geographic spread and electoral success. If a party manages to win at least 2% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha (which currently translates to 11 seats out of 543), and crucially, these members are elected from at least three distinct states, the party is recognized as a National Party.
Alternative Pathways to National Status: If a party fails the 2% rule, it can still achieve National Party status through two other avenues: it must secure 6% of valid votes polled in four or more states in Lok Sabha or State Assembly elections plus win 4 Lok Sabha seats, OR it simply must be recognized as a State Party in four or more separate states.

📌 Polity • RTI Act

Q.26) Under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, certain intelligence and security organizations are exempt from disclosing information, EXCEPT when the information pertains to allegations of:

Ans > Corruption or human rights violations

Section 24 of the RTI Act (Blanket Exemption): The Right to Information Act of 2005 generally aims for maximum transparency. However, Section 24 of the Act explicitly recognizes that certain agencies require absolute secrecy. It provides a massive blanket exemption from the RTI Act to specific central intelligence and security organizations listed in the Second Schedule, such as RAW, IB, and paramilitary forces.
The Crucial Transparency Caveat: Despite this blanket exemption, the framers of the Act ensured that secrecy could not be used as a shield for gross abuses of power. The Act expressly dictates that information must be provided by these exempt organizations if the RTI query specifically pertains to allegations of corruption or severe human rights violations.
Approval Process for Human Rights Disclosures: To balance security with accountability, the law places a procedural check on this caveat. If the requested information concerns allegations of human rights violations by an exempt agency, the information can only be released after receiving explicit, formal approval from the Central Information Commission, and it must be provided within 45 days.

📌 Polity • State Executive

Q.27) According to the Constitution, the total number of Ministers in the State Council of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly. However, it shall not be less than:

Ans > 12

The 91st Amendment Act (2003) Restrictions: Historically, Chief Ministers and Prime Ministers would create jumbo-sized cabinets to appease political allies and prevent defections, severely draining the public exchequer. To stop this corrupt practice, Parliament enacted the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act in 2003, which placed a hard cap on the size of the Council of Ministers at both the Union and State levels.
The 15% Upper Limit Rule: Article 164(1A) was inserted into the Constitution, explicitly stating that the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a State cannot exceed 15% of the total numerical strength of that state’s Legislative Assembly. This forced governments to streamline their ministries.
The Minimum Limit of 12 Ministers: While large states like Uttar Pradesh can easily accommodate a large cabinet within the 15% rule, smaller states (like Sikkim, Goa, or Mizoram) have tiny legislative assemblies. 15% of a 40-member assembly is only 6 ministers, which is insufficient to run a government. Therefore, the Constitution mandates a minimum floor: the number of ministers shall not be less than 12, regardless of the assembly’s size.

📌 Polity • Supreme Court Jurisdiction

Q.28) Article 131 grants original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court for federal disputes. Does this jurisdiction cover a dispute between a State Government and a private citizen?

Ans > No, such disputes are explicitly excluded from Article 131

The Scope of Article 131 (Original Jurisdiction): Article 131 of the Indian Constitution grants the Supreme Court “original jurisdiction,” meaning certain cases can be filed directly in the Supreme Court without going through lower courts. However, this power is strictly limited to resolving purely federal disputes, acting as the ultimate umpire in the Indian federal system.
Strictly Inter-Governmental Disputes: The language of Article 131 is incredibly specific. It only covers disputes arising between the Government of India and one or more States; or between the Government of India and any State(s) on one side and other State(s) on the other; or directly between two or more States. It must involve a question of law or fact upon which a legal right depends.
Exclusion of Private Citizens and Corporations: Because the intent is solely to resolve federal power struggles, disputes where a private citizen, a private corporation, or even a statutory body is a party against a State or the Union are completely excluded from the ambit of Article 131. Such cases must follow the normal judicial hierarchy starting from the lower courts or High Courts.

📌 Polity • Judicial Review

Q.29) The concept of “Judicial Review” in the Indian Constitution is implicitly established by multiple articles, but which Article serves as its fundamental bedrock by declaring laws inconsistent with Part III as void?

Ans > Article 13

The Explicit Declaration of Void Laws: While the exact phrase “Judicial Review” is nowhere explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution, the power is deeply embedded within it. Article 13 serves as the primary constitutional bedrock for this power. It emphatically declares that any law that is inconsistent with or heavily derogates from the Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III shall be absolutely void to the extent of the inconsistency.
Empowering the Judiciary: By making this explicit declaration, Article 13 implicitly grants the judiciary (specifically the Supreme Court under Article 32 and High Courts under Article 226) the immense power to thoroughly review and strike down legislative enactments or executive orders if they infringe upon the constitutionally guaranteed rights of the citizens.
An Expansive Definition of “Law”: To ensure the state cannot bypass this judicial check, Article 13 provides an incredibly broad definition of what constitutes a “law.” It includes not just Acts passed by Parliament or State Legislatures, but also ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications, and even established customs or usages having the force of law in India.

📌 Polity • Union Executive

Q.30) Finally, which Article definitively states that the “executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution”?

Ans > Article 53

Vesting of Executive Power (Article 53): Article 53 is the foundational article defining the executive architecture of the Indian Republic. It explicitly states that the entire executive power of the Union government shall be formally vested in the President of India. This makes the President the constitutional head of the state, in whose name all executive actions are formally taken.
Execution Through Subordinate Officers: The article clarifies that the President can exercise this immense power either directly or, far more commonly, through “officers subordinate to him.” This crucial phrase legally validates the entire bureaucratic and ministerial machinery of the central government, allowing them to function continuously under the President’s overarching authority.
The Reality of Article 74 (Cabinet Advice): While Article 53 makes the President the supreme executive authority on paper, it must always be read in conjunction with Article 74. Article 74 mandates that there shall be a Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to “aid and advise” the President. In India’s parliamentary democracy, the President is constitutionally bound to act in accordance with this advice, rendering them a nominal executive head.

📌 Quick Summary — Polity Set 178

CAG Audit Reports (Art 151): The Governor lays state reports before the State Legislature.
Election Commissioners: Service conditions and tenure are determined by Parliament by law.
Removal of ECs: Removed by the President ONLY on the recommendation of the CEC.
Finance Commission (Art 280): Qualifications and selection manner are determined by Parliament.
UPSC Acting Chairman: Appointed directly by the President of India.
UPSC Member Removal (Art 317): Removed by President after an inquiry by the Supreme Court of India.
SPSC Member Removal: Removed by the President (not the Governor) after Supreme Court inquiry.
NCST Article (89th Amendment): Article 338A established the separate commission for Scheduled Tribes.
NCBC Article (102nd Amendment): Article 338B granted constitutional status to the NCBC.
First Official Language Commission: Constituted in 1955 under the chairmanship of B.G. Kher.
Linguistic Minorities (Art 350B): Special Officer post was created via the 7th Amendment Act (1956).
Inter-State Council (Art 263): A constitutional body, unlike Zonal/NEC councils which are statutory.
North Eastern Council (NEC): Established by a separate parliamentary act in 1971.
CVC Statutory Status: Granted statutory status in 2003 following the Vineet Narain judgment.
Central Information Commission (CIC): A statutory body created under the RTI Act in 2005.
NITI Aayog: Formed on Jan 1, 2015, via an Executive Resolution of the Union Cabinet.
NHRC Limitation Clause: Cannot inquire into a violation after 1 year from the date of occurrence.
Lokpal Chairperson: Must have at least 25 years of expertise if from the “eminent person” category.
Disaster Management Act: Enacted in 2005, creating the NDMA, SDMA, and DDMA framework.
National Investigation Agency (NIA): Created via the NIA Act in 2008 post the 26/11 attacks.
Article 311 Protections: Available only to members of civil services (Union/States), excluding defense.
Article 311 Exceptions: Inquiry skipped for criminal convictions, impracticability, or state security.
New All-India Services (Art 312): Initiated by Rajya Sabha resolution, but law enacted by Parliament.
Right to Property (Art 300A): A constitutional right located under Part XII of the Constitution.
National Party Status: Needs 2% of Lok Sabha seats (11 seats) drawn from at least 3 states.
RTI Exemptions: Agencies must disclose info regarding corruption or human rights violations.
State Council of Ministers: Must not exceed 15% of the Assembly, but cannot be less than 12.
Supreme Court Original Jurisdiction (Art 131): Strictly federal disputes; excludes private citizens.
Judicial Review Bedrock: Article 13 declares laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights void.
Executive Power (Art 53): Vested entirely in the President, exercised directly or via subordinate officers.

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Polity Set 178

Q.1) The Constitution mandates under Article 151 that the CAG’s audit reports be submitted to the President. Who lays these reports before the State Legislature in the case of state accounts?

Q.2) The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the President. Their conditions of service and tenure are determined by the:

Q.3) While the CEC can only be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge, how can the other Election Commissioners be removed from office?

Q.4) Article 280 states that the Finance Commission shall consist of a Chairman and four other members. The qualifications for these members and the manner of their selection are determined by the:

Q.5) Under Article 316, the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) are appointed by the President. If the office of the Chairman becomes vacant, who appoints an acting Chairman?

Q.6) The Chairman or any member of the UPSC can only be removed by the President on the ground of “misbehavior” after an inquiry conducted by the:

Q.7) In the case of a State Public Service Commission (SPSC), the Chairman and members are appointed by the Governor. Who has the authority to remove them on the ground of misbehavior?

Q.8) The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act (2003) bifurcated the combined National Commission for SCs and STs. Article 338 now deals with the NCSC. Which Article deals with the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST)?

Q.9) The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act (2018) granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC). Which Article governs its composition and functions?

Q.10) Under Article 344, the President is empowered to constitute an Official Language Commission at the expiration of five years from the commencement of the Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of ten years. The first such commission was constituted in 1955 under the chairmanship of:

Q.11) Article 350B mandates the appointment of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. This post was created via which Constitutional Amendment Act?

Q.12) The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 in 1990 based on the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission. Which of the following bodies is NOT a statutory body (created by an Act of Parliament)?

Q.13) The Zonal Councils were established by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. The North Eastern Council (NEC), which includes the 8 northeastern states, was established by the NEC Act in which year?

Q.14) The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established in 1964 via an executive resolution. Following a landmark Supreme Court directive in the Vineet Narain case (1997), it was granted statutory status by Parliament in which year?

Q.15) The Central Information Commission (CIC) is a statutory body constituted under the Right to Information Act in which year?

Q.16) NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India. It was established on January 1, 2015, via:

Q.17) The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body established in 1993. Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, the NHRC cannot inquire into any matter after the expiry of how much time from the date on which the human rights violation allegedly occurred?

Q.19) The Disaster Management Act was passed to ensure a coordinated response to natural and man-made disasters. In which year was this Act passed?

Q.20) The National Investigation Agency (NIA), India’s premier counter-terror task force, was created by the NIA Act following the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks. The Act was passed in:

Q.21) Article 310 outlines the “Doctrine of Pleasure”. However, this doctrine is restricted by Article 311, which provides that a civil servant must be given a “reasonable opportunity of being heard” concerning the charges against them. This constitutional safeguard is available to:

Q.22) Article 311’s protection of a “reasonable opportunity of being heard” has three specific exceptions. Under these exceptions, an inquiry is NOT required if:

Q.23) Under Article 312, if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to create a new All-India Service, who actually enacts the law to create it?

Q.24) The Right to Property, originally a fundamental right under Articles 19(1)(f) and 31, was made a constitutional right under Article 300A by the 44th Amendment Act. Under which Part of the Constitution is Article 300A located?

Q.25) If a political party wins 2% of the seats in the Lok Sabha (currently 11 seats) drawn from at least 3 different states, it is recognized by the Election Commission as a:

Q.26) Under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, certain intelligence and security organizations are exempt from disclosing information, EXCEPT when the information pertains to allegations of:

Q.27) According to the Constitution, the total number of Ministers in the State Council of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly. However, it shall not be less than:

Q.28) Article 131 grants original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court for federal disputes. Does this jurisdiction cover a dispute between a State Government and a private citizen?

Q.29) The concept of “Judicial Review” in the Indian Constitution is implicitly established by multiple articles, but which Article serves as its fundamental bedrock by declaring laws inconsistent with Part III as void?

Q.30) Finally, which Article definitively states that the “executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution”?

📌 Quick Summary — Polity Set 178

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Q.1) The Constitution mandates under Article 151 that the CAG’s audit reports be submitted to the President. Who lays these reports before the State Legislature in the case of state accounts?

Q.2) The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the President. Their conditions of service and tenure are determined by the:

Q.3) While the CEC can only be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge, how can the other Election Commissioners be removed from office?

Q.4) Article 280 states that the Finance Commission shall consist of a Chairman and four other members. The qualifications for these members and the manner of their selection are determined by the:

Q.5) Under Article 316, the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) are appointed by the President. If the office of the Chairman becomes vacant, who appoints an acting Chairman?

Q.6) The Chairman or any member of the UPSC can only be removed by the President on the ground of “misbehavior” after an inquiry conducted by the:

Q.7) In the case of a State Public Service Commission (SPSC), the Chairman and members are appointed by the Governor. Who has the authority to remove them on the ground of misbehavior?

Q.8) The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act (2003) bifurcated the combined National Commission for SCs and STs. Article 338 now deals with the NCSC. Which Article deals with the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST)?

Q.9) The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act (2018) granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC). Which Article governs its composition and functions?

Q.10) Under Article 344, the President is empowered to constitute an Official Language Commission at the expiration of five years from the commencement of the Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of ten years. The first such commission was constituted in 1955 under the chairmanship of:

Q.11) Article 350B mandates the appointment of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. This post was created via which Constitutional Amendment Act?

Q.12) The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 in 1990 based on the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission. Which of the following bodies is NOT a statutory body (created by an Act of Parliament)?

Q.13) The Zonal Councils were established by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. The North Eastern Council (NEC), which includes the 8 northeastern states, was established by the NEC Act in which year?

Q.14) The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established in 1964 via an executive resolution. Following a landmark Supreme Court directive in the Vineet Narain case (1997), it was granted statutory status by Parliament in which year?

Q.15) The Central Information Commission (CIC) is a statutory body constituted under the Right to Information Act in which year?

Q.16) NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India. It was established on January 1, 2015, via:

Q.17) The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body established in 1993. Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, the NHRC cannot inquire into any matter after the expiry of how much time from the date on which the human rights violation allegedly occurred?

Q.19) The Disaster Management Act was passed to ensure a coordinated response to natural and man-made disasters. In which year was this Act passed?

Q.20) The National Investigation Agency (NIA), India’s premier counter-terror task force, was created by the NIA Act following the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks. The Act was passed in:

Q.21) Article 310 outlines the “Doctrine of Pleasure”. However, this doctrine is restricted by Article 311, which provides that a civil servant must be given a “reasonable opportunity of being heard” concerning the charges against them. This constitutional safeguard is available to:

Q.22) Article 311’s protection of a “reasonable opportunity of being heard” has three specific exceptions. Under these exceptions, an inquiry is NOT required if:

Q.23) Under Article 312, if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to create a new All-India Service, who actually enacts the law to create it?

Q.24) The Right to Property, originally a fundamental right under Articles 19(1)(f) and 31, was made a constitutional right under Article 300A by the 44th Amendment Act. Under which Part of the Constitution is Article 300A located?

Q.25) If a political party wins 2% of the seats in the Lok Sabha (currently 11 seats) drawn from at least 3 different states, it is recognized by the Election Commission as a:

Q.26) Under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, certain intelligence and security organizations are exempt from disclosing information, EXCEPT when the information pertains to allegations of:

Q.27) According to the Constitution, the total number of Ministers in the State Council of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly. However, it shall not be less than:

Q.28) Article 131 grants original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court for federal disputes. Does this jurisdiction cover a dispute between a State Government and a private citizen?

Q.29) The concept of “Judicial Review” in the Indian Constitution is implicitly established by multiple articles, but which Article serves as its fundamental bedrock by declaring laws inconsistent with Part III as void?

Q.30) Finally, which Article definitively states that the “executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution”?

📌 Quick Summary — Polity Set 178

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