Polity Set 172 | MROY Class

Polity Questions & Answers (Set 172)

Doctrine of Laches does not strictly apply to petitions under which Article? – Article 32 (Fundamental Rights)
Judge removal motion in Lok Sabha requires how many signatures? – 100
Judge removal motion in Rajya Sabha requires how many signatures? – 50
Who is NOT in the 3-member committee for judge impeachment? – The Union Law Minister
Which Article grants advisory jurisdiction to the Supreme Court? – Article 143
Is the Supreme Court bound to give opinion under Art 143? – No, only bound on pre-constitution treaty disputes.
Which committee recommended the PESA Act (1996)? – Bhuria Committee
Who initiates the process for forest rights under FRA, 2006? – The Gram Sabha
Which statutory body for women was established in 1990? – National Commission for Women (NCW)
NCPCR operates under which Ministry? – Ministry of Women and Child Development
Which body replaced MRTP Commission in 2003? – Competition Commission of India (CCI)
NCLT & NCLAT were constituted under which Act? – The Companies Act, 2013
The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) holds what rank? – Four-star General
Who heads the National Security Council (NSC)? – Prime Minister
What is the Strategic Policy Group (SPG)? – Core inter-ministerial coordination mechanism of the NSC
Which Amendment allowed Parliament to amend Fundamental Rights? – 24th Amendment Act (1971)
25th Amendment gave primacy to Art 39(b) and (c) over which Articles? – 14, 19, and 31
Which case struck down 42nd Amendment’s expansion of Article 31C? – Minerva Mills case (1980)
Which Amendment inserted Part XIV-A (Tribunals)? – 42nd Amendment Act (1976)
44th Amendment requires written advice for emergency from? – Cabinet
Which Amendment made primary education a Fundamental Right? – 86th Amendment Act (2002)
Which Amendment limited the Council of Ministers to 15%? – 91st Amendment Act (2003)
97th Amendment added which Part for Co-operative Societies? – Part IX-B
101st Amendment inserted which Article for the GST Council? – Article 279A
Which Amendment granted constitutional status to NCBC? – 102nd Amendment Act (2018)
103rd Amendment (EWS) amended which two Articles? – Articles 15 and 16
104th Amendment ended nomination for which community? – The Anglo-Indian community
Article 371 makes special provisions for which states? – Maharashtra and Gujarat
Under Article 371A, central acts on Naga practices must be approved by? – State Legislative Assembly of Nagaland
Article 371G provides special protections for which state? – Mizoram

MROY Class

Polity Set 172

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📌 Constitutional Law • Fundamental Rights

Q.1) The legal “Doctrine of Laches” essentially states that courts will not help people who sleep on their rights. However, the Supreme Court has generally ruled that this doctrine does NOT strictly apply to petitions filed under which Article?

Ans > Article 32 (Fundamental Rights)

Constitutional Importance of Article 32: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar famously described Article 32 as the “heart and soul” of the Indian Constitution. It guarantees individuals the right to approach the Supreme Court directly for the enforcement of their Fundamental Rights. Because this right itself is a Fundamental Right, the judiciary treats it with the utmost sanctity and priority compared to ordinary legal statutory rights.
Understanding the Doctrine of Laches: The Doctrine of Laches is an equitable defense principle originating from English common law. It essentially asserts that an unreasonable delay by a plaintiff in asserting their rights can result in the dismissal of their claim, as equity aids the vigilant, not those who slumber on their rights.
Application to Fundamental Rights: The Supreme Court has repeatedly held that the Doctrine of Laches cannot strictly act as a rigid barrier to petitions under Article 32. Since Fundamental Rights form the bedrock of the Constitution, a mere delay in filing cannot automatically extinguish these rights. However, the court retains the discretion to reject a petition if the delay is exceptionally unreasonable, causes extreme prejudice, or if third-party rights have already been firmly established.

📌 Judiciary • Impeachment

Q.2) Under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, a motion for the removal (impeachment) of a Supreme Court or High Court judge requires the signatures of at least how many members if introduced in the Lok Sabha?

Ans > 100

Safeguarding Judicial Independence: The makers of the Constitution intentionally made the process of removing a Supreme Court or High Court judge exceptionally difficult to ensure the independence of the judiciary. Judges must be able to deliver judgments without fear of political retaliation or arbitrary dismissal by the ruling government.
Constitutional and Statutory Basis: The substantive grounds for removal—proved misbehavior or incapacity—are laid down in Article 124(4) of the Constitution. However, the exact procedural mechanics, including the initiation of the motion, the investigation, and the voting process, are detailed extensively within the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
The Lok Sabha Threshold: For a removal motion to even be initiated in the lower house of Parliament (the Lok Sabha), it must be supported and signed by a minimum of 100 Members of Parliament. This high threshold serves as an initial filter to prevent frivolous, politically motivated, or baseless impeachment attempts against judges. Even after gathering 100 signatures, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha retains the absolute discretion to either admit or entirely refuse the motion based on its preliminary merits.

📌 Judiciary • Impeachment

Q.3) Under the same Act, a motion for the removal of a judge requires the signatures of at least how many members if introduced in the Rajya Sabha?

Ans > 50

Bicameral Parity in Impeachment: The removal of a higher judiciary judge in India requires a parliamentary process involving both houses of Parliament, ensuring broad consensus. The motion can originate in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha, demonstrating the shared constitutional responsibility of both houses in maintaining judicial accountability.
The Rajya Sabha Signature Requirement: If the motion for removal is introduced in the upper house (the Rajya Sabha), it must carry the signatures of at least 50 Members of Parliament. This number is proportionally lower than the Lok Sabha’s requirement (100 members) because the total strength of the Rajya Sabha (maximum 250) is roughly half the total strength of the Lok Sabha (maximum 552).
Chairman’s Discretionary Power: Just as the Speaker controls the process in the Lok Sabha, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the Vice President of India) wields the authority to admit or reject the motion. If the Chairman admits the motion with the requisite 50 signatures, the process advances to the next critical stage—the formation of an independent investigative committee under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, to look into the allegations of misbehavior or incapacity.

📌 Judiciary • Impeachment

Q.4) Once the motion is admitted by the Speaker/Chairman, a three-member committee is constituted to investigate the charges against the judge. Which of the following is NOT typically a member of this committee?

Ans > The Union Law Minister

Purpose of the Three-Member Committee: Once a removal motion is admitted by the presiding officer of either house, a specialized, independent three-member committee must be formed. The primary function of this committee is to conduct an impartial, quasi-judicial investigation into the specific charges of “proved misbehavior or incapacity” leveled against the judge in question.
Composition and Independence: To maintain the strict separation of powers between the executive and the judiciary, politicians and government ministers are intentionally excluded from this investigative panel. The committee exclusively comprises legal and judicial experts: a serving Chief Justice or judge of the Supreme Court, a serving Chief Justice of a High Court, and an eminent, distinguished jurist appointed by the Speaker or Chairman.
Exclusion of the Union Law Minister: The Union Law Minister, being a prominent member of the Executive branch and a political appointee within the ruling government, cannot be part of this committee. Including a minister would severely compromise the impartiality of the probe and violate the foundational constitutional principle of judicial independence, risking political interference in the assessment of a sitting judge’s conduct.

📌 Supreme Court • Advisory Powers

Q.5) Which Article grants the President of India the power to refer any matter of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion?

Ans > Article 143

The Concept of Advisory Jurisdiction: The Indian Constitution, borrowing from the Canadian constitutional model, vests the Supreme Court with a unique “Advisory Jurisdiction” alongside its original and appellate jurisdictions. Under Article 143, the President of India has the constitutional authority to seek the expert legal opinion of the Supreme Court on complex issues of law or critical matters of public fact.
Purpose of Presidential References: This provision is designed to assist the Executive branch in navigating highly complex legal, constitutional, or historical disputes before taking executive action or passing legislation. It ensures that the highest office in the country has access to the most authoritative legal interpretation, potentially avoiding future constitutional crises or lengthy litigation over unconstitutional acts.
Historical Examples: Over the decades, Presidents have utilized Article 143 on several momentous occasions. Notable examples include references regarding the constitutional validity of the Kerala Education Bill (1958), the complex legalities surrounding the Berubari Union transfer to Pakistan (1960), the controversial Special Courts Bill (1978), and the highly sensitive Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid dispute in Ayodhya (1993).

📌 Supreme Court • Advisory Powers

Q.6) Is the Supreme Court bound to give its opinion to the President on all matters referred to it under Article 143?

Ans > No, it is bound to give its opinion only on pre-constitution treaty disputes, and may decline to answer other questions of law or fact.

Two Categories of Presidential References: Article 143 divides references into two distinct categories. The first category involves broad questions of law or fact of general public importance (Article 143(1)). The second category specifically involves disputes arising out of pre-constitution treaties, agreements, covenants, or similar instruments (Article 143(2) read with Article 131).
Discretion on General Public Importance: For matters referred under the first category (general public importance), the Supreme Court exercises discretionary power. The Court is not constitutionally obligated to provide an opinion. If the Court determines that the reference is politically motivated, inappropriate, or unnecessary, it can respectfully decline to answer. A famous instance of this occurred when the Court declined to give an opinion on the Ayodhya dispute reference in 1993.
Obligation on Pre-Constitution Treaties: Conversely, for matters referred under the second category (pre-constitution treaties and agreements), the Supreme Court is constitutionally bound to provide its legal opinion to the President. However, it is crucial to note that regardless of the category, the opinion delivered by the Supreme Court under Article 143 is strictly advisory in nature; it is not a binding judicial pronouncement.

📌 Panchayati Raj • Scheduled Areas

Q.7) Which committee’s recommendations paved the way for the enactment of the PESA Act (Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996)?

Ans > Bhuria Committee

The Exclusions of the 73rd Amendment: When the landmark 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) was passed to institutionalize Panchayati Raj (local self-government) across India, its provisions explicitly did not apply to the Scheduled Areas (listed under the Fifth Schedule) and Tribal Areas. This exclusion was designed to protect the distinct socio-cultural practices and traditional governance systems of tribal communities from sudden disruption.
The Mandate of the Bhuria Committee: Realizing the need to extend democratic decentralization to tribal regions without destroying their customary laws, the Government of India constituted a specialized committee in 1994. Headed by the prominent tribal leader and parliamentarian Dileep Singh Bhuria, this committee was tasked with drafting a customized framework for extending Panchayati Raj to Scheduled Areas.
Enactment of PESA (1996): Based directly on the comprehensive recommendations submitted by the Bhuria Committee in 1995, Parliament enacted the Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, commonly known as PESA, in 1996. The PESA Act legally recognizes the traditional rights of tribal communities over natural resources and places the “Gram Sabha” (village assembly) at the absolute center of local governance.

📌 Forest Rights • Local Governance

Q.8) The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006. Under this Act, who is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights?

Ans > The Gram Sabha

Historical Injustice and the FRA: The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006—widely known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA)—was a historic piece of legislation intended to undo centuries of historical injustice. For generations, forest-dwelling communities lacked legal recognition of their traditional land rights, making them vulnerable to eviction and harassment by forest authorities.
Empowering the Grassroots: In a radical departure from top-down bureaucratic control, the FRA explicitly strips initial decision-making power away from the State Forest Departments. Instead, it places profound trust in the most decentralized unit of democracy: the Gram Sabha (the general assembly of all adult members of a village).
The Initiation Process: Under the FRA, the Gram Sabha is legally designated as the primary statutory authority responsible for initiating the entire process of recognizing forest rights. It is the Gram Sabha that receives claims from individuals and communities, physically verifies them, consolidates the evidence, and passes the initial resolution determining the nature and extent of the forest rights. This resolution is then forwarded to higher committees for final approval.

📌 Statutory Bodies • Women’s Rights

Q.9) Which statutory body was established in 1990 to protect and promote the interests of women in India, and to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women?

Ans > National Commission for Women (NCW)

Establishment and Statutory Status: The National Commission for Women (NCW) was established as a premier statutory body in January 1992. Its creation was mandated by the National Commission for Women Act, which was passed by the Indian Parliament in 1990. Being a statutory body means it derives its powers directly from an Act of Parliament, granting it significant operational authority and institutional legitimacy.
Core Mandate and Objectives: The fundamental mandate of the NCW is to act as a powerful watchdog for women’s rights in India. Its vast responsibilities include constantly reviewing the constitutional and legal safeguards designed for women, aggressively recommending remedial legislative measures, vigorously facilitating grievance redressal for women facing injustice, and advising the government on all policy matters affecting women’s welfare.
Quasi-Judicial Powers: To effectively carry out its investigative functions, the NCW is vested with the powers of a civil court. When investigating matters related to the deprivation of women’s rights or the non-implementation of protective laws, the Commission can summon individuals, demand the discovery and production of critical documents, and requisition public records from any court or government office.

📌 Statutory Bodies • Child Rights

Q.10) The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was established in 2007 as a statutory body under the CPCR Act, 2005. It operates under the administrative control of which Ministry?

Ans > Ministry of Women and Child Development

Genesis of the NCPCR: Recognizing the vulnerability of children and the need for a dedicated institutional framework to safeguard their rights, the Government of India passed the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act in 2005. Following this legislation, the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was officially constituted in March 2007, operating with a mandate defined by the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
Administrative Jurisdiction: While the NCPCR operates as an independent statutory body with its own investigative authority, it functions under the broad administrative umbrella of the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD). This ministry acts as the nodal government agency, facilitating the Commission’s funding, coordinating policy responses, and presenting the Commission’s annual reports before Parliament.
Scope of Responsibilities: The NCPCR is tasked with ensuring that all laws, policies, programs, and administrative mechanisms in India are in complete consonance with the child rights perspective. Furthermore, it serves as the appellate authority for monitoring the implementation of crucial child-centric legislations, notably the Right to Education (RTE) Act of 2009 and the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act of 2012.

📌 Statutory Bodies • Market Regulation

Q.11) Which statutory authority was established in 2003, replacing the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Commission, to prevent practices having an adverse effect on economic competition?

Ans > Competition Commission of India (CCI)

The Shift from Monopoly Control to Competition Promotion: During the pre-liberalization era, India regulated its markets through the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act of 1969. The primary goal of the MRTP was to restrict the growth of large monopolies and prevent the concentration of economic power. However, following the economic liberalization reforms of 1991, this restrictive approach became outdated and acted as a barrier to global competitiveness and foreign investment.
The Raghavan Committee and the Competition Act: To modernize India’s economic framework, the government appointed the Raghavan Committee, which strongly recommended shifting focus from merely curbing monopolies to actively promoting healthy market competition. Based on these recommendations, Parliament passed the Competition Act in 2002, fundamentally altering India’s regulatory landscape.
Establishment and Role of the CCI: The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was fully established in 2003 as a statutory body under the new Act, replacing the obsolete MRTP Commission. The CCI functions as a proactive market regulator. Its primary duties are to aggressively eliminate anti-competitive agreements, prevent the abuse of dominant market positions by large corporations, and rigorously regulate massive mergers and acquisitions to ensure they do not harm consumer interests.

📌 Statutory Bodies • Corporate Law

Q.12) The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) were constituted under the provisions of which Act?

Ans > The Companies Act, 2013

Consolidation of Corporate Justice: Prior to the establishment of the NCLT and NCLAT, corporate disputes and insolvency matters in India were heavily fragmented across multiple overlapping authorities. These included the Company Law Board (CLB), the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR), and various state High Courts. This led to severe judicial delays and inefficiencies that hampered the business environment.
The Eradi Committee Recommendations: To streamline this chaotic system, the V. Balakrishna Eradi Committee recommended the creation of a single, unified, specialized adjudicating forum for all corporate matters. Following a long legal battle regarding their constitutional validity, the tribunals were finally approved for creation by the Supreme Court of India.
Establishment under the Companies Act, 2013: The NCLT and the NCLAT were formally constituted in June 2016 under Section 408 and Section 410, respectively, of the Companies Act, 2013. Since their inception, these quasi-judicial bodies have become the absolute backbone of Indian corporate law. Notably, while established under the Companies Act, their most prominent and transformative role today is serving as the primary adjudicating authorities for resolving massive corporate defaults under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) of 2016.

📌 Defense • Military Administration

Q.13) In 2019, the Government of India created the post of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) to act as the principal military advisor to the Defence Minister. The CDS is a:

Ans > Four-star General

The Need for Military Integration: For decades following independence, the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force operated largely in silos, hindering joint operational capabilities. Following the security gaps exposed during the 1999 Kargil War, the Kargil Review Committee (KRC) strongly recommended the creation of a unified military command structure to ensure better coordination, resource optimization, and rapid decision-making across the three branches of the armed forces.
Creation of the Post: Acting on these long-standing recommendations, the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) officially approved the creation of the post of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) in December 2019. General Bipin Rawat was appointed as the historic first CDS of India, marking a major shift in India’s military administration.
Rank and Authority: The CDS is a four-star General (equivalent in rank to the respective Chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force). However, the CDS functions as the “first among equals” and acts as the singular Principal Military Advisor to the Defence Minister on all tri-services matters. Furthermore, the CDS heads the newly created Department of Military Affairs (DMA) within the Ministry of Defence, streamlining military bureaucracy and driving the critical integration of the armed forces into unified theatre commands.

📌 Defense • Strategic Security

Q.14) The National Security Council (NSC) of India is the apex agency looking into the country’s political, economic, energy, and strategic security concerns. It is headed by the:

Ans > Prime Minister

Establishment and Apex Status: The National Security Council (NSC) of India was formally established in 1998 by the government of Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee. It serves as the absolute apex executive agency tasked with advising the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) on complex issues pertaining to national security and strategic interests. It synthesizes intelligence from various internal and external agencies to provide a unified threat assessment.
Leadership and Composition: Given its critical importance, the NSC is directly chaired by the Prime Minister of India. Its core membership comprises the absolute highest echelons of the Cabinet, specifically the Ministers of Home Affairs, Defence, External Affairs, and Finance. This high-level composition ensures that all aspects of national power—diplomatic, economic, and military—are synchronized when addressing security threats.
The Role of the NSA: While the Prime Minister heads the Council, the National Security Advisor (NSA) plays the crucial operational role. The NSA acts as the Secretary to the NSC and serves as the primary executive advisor to the Prime Minister on all national security policies. The NSA also acts as the vital link between the intelligence agencies (like R&AW and IB) and the political leadership within the NSC.

📌 Defense • National Security

Q.15) What is the Strategic Policy Group (SPG)?

Ans > The core inter-ministerial coordination mechanism of the National Security Council (NSC)

The Three-Tier Structure of the NSC: The National Security Council (NSC) is not a single body but operates through a complex three-tier structural framework to process intelligence and formulate policy. These three distinct tiers are the Strategic Policy Group (SPG), the National Security Advisory Board (NSAB), and the National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS).
The Function of the SPG: The Strategic Policy Group (SPG) represents the crucial first tier and serves as the primary mechanism for robust inter-ministerial coordination. Before comprehensive strategic policies or critical security assessments are presented to the Prime Minister and the Cabinet via the NSC, they are thoroughly debated, drafted, and refined within the SPG to ensure cross-departmental alignment.
High-Level Bureaucratic Membership: Originally chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, the structure was revamped in 2018, and the SPG is now headed directly by the National Security Advisor (NSA). Its membership represents the absolute peak of the Indian bureaucracy, including the Cabinet Secretary, the three military service chiefs, the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the Foreign Secretary, the Home Secretary, the Finance Secretary, and the heads of India’s premier intelligence agencies.

📌 Constitutional Amendments • Parliament Powers

Q.16) Which Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) made it clear that the Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, under Article 368?

Ans > 24th Amendment Act

The Golaknath Judgement Trigger: The genesis of the 24th Amendment lies in the explosive 1967 Supreme Court ruling in the I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab case. In that landmark judgment, the Supreme Court ruled that Fundamental Rights (Part III) held a transcendental position and were entirely immune from the Parliament’s amending powers under Article 368. This severely handicapped the government’s ability to implement land and wealth reforms.
Restoring Parliamentary Supremacy: To directly nullify the Golaknath ruling, the Indira Gandhi government aggressively pushed through the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1971. The explicit and singular purpose of this amendment was to unequivocally restore Parliament’s absolute authority to amend, modify, or repeal any provision of the Constitution, including the sacred Fundamental Rights.
Key Constitutional Changes: The 24th Amendment explicitly modified both Article 13 and Article 368. It declared that the restrictions on legislative power under Article 13 would not apply to constitutional amendments passed under Article 368. Furthermore, it made it constitutionally mandatory for the President of India to give their assent to any Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by both houses of Parliament, removing any presidential veto power in such matters.

📌 Constitutional Amendments • Fundamental Rights vs DPSP

Q.17) The 25th Amendment Act (1971) inserted Article 31C. It gave primacy to the Directive Principles contained in Article 39(b) and (c) over the Fundamental Rights contained in Articles:

Ans > 14, 19, and 31

The Conflict Between Part III and Part IV: During the 1960s and 70s, a massive constitutional battle raged regarding the supremacy of Fundamental Rights (Part III) versus Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV). The government aimed to implement aggressive socialist policies, such as nationalization and wealth redistribution, which frequently clashed with the fundamental rights to equality, freedom, and property.
The Introduction of Article 31C: To bypass judicial roadblocks stalling these socio-economic reforms, the 25th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 introduced a revolutionary new provision: Article 31C. This article was fundamentally designed to shield specific socialist legislations from rigorous judicial scrutiny and constitutional challenges.
Primacy Over Specific Fundamental Rights: Article 31C fundamentally altered the constitutional hierarchy. It explicitly stated that any law enacted to implement the specific Directive Principles outlined in Article 39(b) (equitable distribution of material resources) and Article 39(c) (prevention of wealth concentration) could not be declared unconstitutional or void on the grounds that it violated the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article 14 (Equality), Article 19 (Freedoms), or the then-existing Article 31 (Right to Property).

📌 Supreme Court Judgements • Basic Structure

Q.18) The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) attempted to extend the scope of Article 31C by giving primacy to all Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights. Which landmark Supreme Court case struck down this specific expansion?

Ans > Minerva Mills case (1980)

The Overreach of the 42nd Amendment: Emboldened by the insertion of Article 31C in 1971, the government sought total legislative dominance during the Emergency period. Through the highly controversial 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 (often dubbed the “Mini-Constitution”), Parliament drastically expanded Article 31C. It declared that laws implementing any and all Directive Principles would be totally immune from constitutional challenges based on Articles 14, 19, and 31.
The Constitutional Challenge in Minerva Mills: The owners of a nationalized textile company legally challenged this unprecedented expansion in the landmark Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India (1980) case. They argued that giving blanket supremacy to all Directive Principles effectively destroyed the basic framework of Fundamental Rights guaranteed to citizens.
Restoring the Constitutional Balance: The Supreme Court delivered a historic verdict, striking down the 42nd Amendment’s massive expansion of Article 31C. The Court eloquently ruled that the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of a harmonious balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles. Granting absolute primacy to one over the other would destroy this delicate balance, which the Court identified as an essential feature of the “Basic Structure” doctrine.

📌 Constitutional Amendments • Tribunals

Q.19) Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted a new Part XIV-A (Tribunals) containing Articles 323A and 323B?

Ans > 42nd Amendment Act (1976)

The Burden on Traditional Courts: By the mid-1970s, the traditional judicial system in India, comprising the High Courts and the Supreme Court, was severely buckling under the massive weight of pending litigation. Service matters of government employees and complex disputes related to taxation and labor laws were taking decades to resolve through normal civil procedures.
Swaran Singh Committee and the 42nd Amendment: To address this judicial bottleneck, the Swaran Singh Committee (which heavily influenced the 42nd Amendment) recommended the establishment of specialized administrative tribunals. Consequently, the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 formally inserted a brand new Part XIV-A into the Constitution, specifically dedicated to the creation of Tribunals.
Articles 323A and 323B: This new part introduced two crucial articles. Article 323A empowered the Parliament to establish specialized Administrative Tribunals (like the Central Administrative Tribunal or CAT) dedicated exclusively to resolving recruitment and service disputes of public servants. Article 323B allowed the appropriate legislature (Parliament or State Legislatures) to set up tribunals for a wide array of other complex matters, including taxation, foreign exchange, industrial disputes, land reforms, and even elections.

📌 Constitutional Amendments • Emergency Provisions

Q.20) The 44th Amendment Act (1978) substituted the term “Internal Disturbance” with “Armed Rebellion” in Article 352. It also required that a National Emergency can only be declared by the President on the written advice of the:

Ans > Cabinet

Correcting the Abuses of the 1975 Emergency: The deeply controversial National Emergency imposed by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in 1975 was declared on the incredibly vague constitutional grounds of “internal disturbance.” Furthermore, the declaration was made by the President purely on the unilateral advice of the Prime Minister, without consulting the broader Cabinet of Ministers.
Replacing “Internal Disturbance”: To fiercely guard against such dictatorial misuse of executive power in the future, the Morarji Desai-led Janata Party government enacted the comprehensive 44th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1978. A critical change was removing the subjective phrase “internal disturbance” from Article 352 and substituting it with the much more precise and severe term “armed rebellion.”
Mandating Written Cabinet Advice: To prevent any future Prime Minister from unilaterally subverting democracy, the 44th Amendment introduced a crucial safeguard. It legally mandated that the President of India can only declare a National Emergency upon receiving a formal, written recommendation explicitly approved by the Union Cabinet (consisting of the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank). This ensured collective executive responsibility rather than singular authoritative decision-making.

📌 Constitutional Amendments • Right to Education

Q.21) Which Amendment Act is recognized for making primary education a Fundamental Right (Article 21A) and adding the 11th Fundamental Duty?

Ans > 86th Amendment Act (2002)

The Journey from Directive to Fundamental Right: The original Constitution placed the responsibility of providing free and compulsory education for children under Article 45, which was merely a non-justiciable Directive Principle of State Policy. Over the decades, recognizing that education is the absolute prerequisite for realizing all other fundamental freedoms, momentum grew to elevate its constitutional status.
Insertion of Article 21A: The momentous 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 transformed the landscape of Indian education. It inserted a brand new Article 21A into Part III of the Constitution. This article explicitly declared the Right to Education as a Fundamental Right, mandating the State to provide free and compulsory education to all children between the exact ages of six and fourteen years.
Adding the 11th Fundamental Duty: To ensure this right was practically realized, the amendment also placed a reciprocal duty on citizens. It modified Article 51A (Fundamental Duties) by adding a new, 11th duty (Article 51A(k)). This specific clause made it the fundamental constitutional duty of every parent or guardian to provide immediate opportunities for education to their child or ward between the ages of six and fourteen years.

📌 Constitutional Amendments • Council of Ministers

Q.22) Which Constitutional Amendment Act restricted the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha / State Legislative Assembly?

Ans > 91st Amendment Act (2003)

The Problem of Jumbo Ministries: Prior to 2003, there was no constitutional limit on the size of the Council of Ministers at either the central or state levels. This regulatory vacuum led to a damaging political practice where Chief Ministers and Prime Ministers would create massive “jumbo cabinets.” They distributed lavish ministerial portfolios indiscriminately simply to appease various factions, secure coalition support, and prevent political defections, resulting in a tremendous drain on the public exchequer.
Imposing the 15% Cap: To enforce strict political morality and ensure administrative efficiency, Parliament passed the highly impactful 91st Constitutional Amendment Act in 2003. This amendment fundamentally altered Articles 75 and 164 of the Constitution. It imposed a hard, legal ceiling, stating that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister or Chief Minister, shall absolutely not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha or the respective State Legislative Assembly.
Special Provision for Smaller States: Recognizing the unique geographical and political realities of smaller Indian states with very low assembly strengths (like Goa, Sikkim, or Mizoram), the amendment included a pragmatic caveat. It stipulated that in state governments, the minimum absolute number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, shall not be less than 12, regardless of the 15% rule.

📌 Constitutional Amendments • Co-operative Societies

Q.23) The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act (2011) gave constitutional status to Co-operative Societies. It added which new Part to the Constitution?

Ans > Part IX-B

The Decline of the Co-operative Movement: The co-operative movement in India, intended to empower grassroots economic participation, had suffered severe functional decay over the years. Many co-operative societies became plagued by deep-seated political interference, excessive bureaucratic delays in elections, gross financial mismanagement, and an overall lack of democratic member control, defeating their fundamental purpose.
Elevating to Constitutional Status: Recognizing that structural reforms required the highest legal backing, Parliament enacted the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act in 2011. This landmark amendment aimed to forcefully revitalize the co-operative sector by making the formation and autonomous democratic functioning of co-operative societies a fundamental constitutional mandate rather than just a statutory option.
Three Key Constitutional Changes: The 97th Amendment enacted three distinct changes. First, it amended Article 19(1)(c) to elevate the right to form co-operative societies into a protected Fundamental Right. Second, it inserted a new Directive Principle (Article 43B), directing the State to actively promote the voluntary formation and professional management of these societies. Finally, it inserted a completely new Part, Part IX-B, into the Constitution, which detailed the exact rules for incorporating, conducting elections, and auditing the accounts of co-operative societies.

📌 Constitutional Amendments • Taxation

Q.24) The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act (2016) introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST). Which new Article was inserted to establish the GST Council?

Ans > Article 279A

The Historic Transition to GST: For decades, India’s indirect taxation system was a chaotic, fragmented web of overlapping central and state taxes (like excise, VAT, octroi, and service tax). This created a massive cascading “tax-on-tax” effect, severely hindering interstate trade. The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2016 executed the most historic tax reform since independence, sweeping away this complex web to establish a unified Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime, aiming to create “One Nation, One Tax, One Market.”
The Necessity of Cooperative Federalism: Because the implementation of GST fundamentally required both the Union Government and the State Governments to voluntarily surrender their exclusive taxation powers and share a common tax base, a highly robust constitutional mechanism was needed to manage disputes and build continuous political consensus between the center and the states.
Creation of the GST Council: To fulfill this need, the amendment inserted the pivotal Article 279A into the Constitution. This article mandated the President to constitute the GST Council. Serving as the apex decision-making body of the GST regime, the Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes the Finance Ministers of all Indian states, making it a spectacular institutional example of cooperative federalism in action.

📌 Constitutional Amendments • Statutory to Constitutional

Q.25) Which Constitutional Amendment Act granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)?

Ans > 102nd Amendment Act (2018)

The Original Statutory Status: The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was originally established in 1993 following the directive of the Supreme Court in the landmark Mandal Commission (Indra Sawhney) judgment. However, it was established merely as a statutory body under an Act of Parliament. Its limited powers meant it could only advise the government on the inclusion or exclusion of communities in the central list of Other Backward Classes (OBCs), lacking the authority to actively investigate grievances.
Demand for Constitutional Parity: For years, political leaders and social activists demanded that the NCBC be granted the same high constitutional status, autonomy, and investigative powers enjoyed by the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST), ensuring robust protection for the socially and educationally backward classes.
The 102nd Constitutional Amendment: In response to these prolonged demands, Parliament passed the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 2018. This amendment officially elevated the NCBC to a constitutional body by inserting a new Article 338B. The newly empowered Commission was now vested with the crucial authority of a civil court, enabling it to actively investigate complaints regarding the deprivation of rights and safeguards provided to the socially and educationally backward classes.

📌 Constitutional Amendments • Reservation

Q.26) The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act (2019) provided for a maximum of 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). It amended which two Articles of the Constitution?

Ans > Articles 15 and 16

The Historical Context of Reservation: Since the adoption of the Constitution, affirmative action and reservations in India (primarily in education and public employment) were strictly based on the criteria of “social and educational backwardness” (for SCs, STs, and OBCs). The Supreme Court had repeatedly ruled in various judgments that purely economic disadvantage could not be the sole constitutional basis for providing reservations.
The Paradigm Shift for EWS: Aiming to aid the millions of citizens who lived in extreme poverty but did not belong to the traditionally reserved SC, ST, or OBC categories, the government introduced a monumental paradigm shift. The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2019 was passed, explicitly recognizing economic deprivation as a valid standalone criterion for state affirmative action.
Amending Core Equality Articles: To legally implement the EWS quota without running afoul of previous judicial rulings, the amendment directly modified two core Fundamental Rights. It inserted clause (6) in Article 15 (allowing the state to make special provisions, including up to 10% reservation in educational institutions, for economically weaker sections) and inserted clause (6) in Article 16 (allowing up to 10% reservation in government jobs and public employment for the same sections).

📌 Constitutional Amendments • Political Representation

Q.27) The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act (2020) extended political reservations for SCs and STs for another ten years, but officially ended the provision for nominating members of which community to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies?

Ans > The Anglo-Indian community

The History of Political Reservations: When the Constitution was enacted in 1950, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and the framers provided for the reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) under Article 334. Originally, this protective provision was designed to expire after just ten years (in 1960). However, due to the persisting realities of social inequality, this deadline has been continuously extended by successive constitutional amendments every decade.
The Special Anglo-Indian Provision: Alongside SC/ST reservations, the original Constitution (under Article 331 and 333) also provided a unique safeguard for the tiny Anglo-Indian community. If the President or State Governor felt the community was inadequately represented through direct elections, they were authorized to nominate two Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha and one to a State Assembly to ensure their legislative voice.
The End of the Nomination Era: The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2020 served a dual purpose. While it successfully extended the crucial political reservations for SCs and STs for another ten years (up to 2030), it deliberately chose not to renew the nomination provisions for the Anglo-Indian community. The government formally justified this historic abolition by stating that the community had assimilated well and achieved adequate socio-economic status, rendering the special political representation obsolete.

📌 Special Provisions • States

Q.28) Article 371 of the Constitution makes special provisions for the establishment of separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada, Saurashtra, and Kutch in the states of:

Ans > Maharashtra and Gujarat

Asymmetrical Federalism in India: While the Indian Constitution generally treats all states equally, Part XXI of the Constitution (Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions) embraces the concept of “asymmetrical federalism.” Articles 371 to 371-J contain extraordinary, state-specific provisions designed to meet the unique historical, cultural, or developmental needs of certain regions that suffer from systemic disparities.
Tackling Intra-State Inequality: Article 371 specifically addresses the profound historical economic imbalances existing within the large, industrialized states of Maharashtra and Gujarat. Regions like Vidarbha and Marathwada in Maharashtra, and Saurashtra and Kutch in Gujarat, have historically suffered from severe geographical disadvantages, frequent droughts, and massive developmental neglect compared to the highly prosperous coastal and urban centers of those states.
The Role of Development Boards: To enforce equitable growth, Article 371 grants special overriding powers directly to the Governors of Maharashtra and Gujarat. The President can authorize the Governor to establish separate, autonomous statutory Development Boards for these specific backward regions. Furthermore, the Governor is constitutionally empowered to mandate the equitable allocation of state funds for developmental expenditures and ensure adequate facilities for technical education and vocational training specifically for the residents of these regions, bypassing regular state political hurdles.

📌 Special Provisions • Nagaland

Q.29) Article 371A gives special provisions to the state of Nagaland. Under this Article, acts of Parliament relating to Naga religious or social practices do not apply unless approved by the:

Ans > State Legislative Assembly of Nagaland

The Historical Context of Naga Integration: The integration of the Naga Hills region into the Indian Union was characterized by intense armed conflict and complex political negotiations. To pacify the prolonged insurgency led by Naga nationalist groups and integrate the region peacefully, the Government of India engaged in extensive dialogue, culminating in the historic 16-Point Agreement signed in 1960 between the Centre and the Naga People’s Convention.
Insertion of Article 371A: To provide absolute constitutional backing to the terms of the 16-Point Agreement, the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in 1962, carving out the new state of Nagaland and inserting Article 371A. This article grants Nagaland an exceptional degree of autonomy, far exceeding the powers of normal Indian states, specifically designed to fiercely protect their unique tribal identity.
Supremacy of the State Assembly: Article 371A explicitly dictates that no Act of the Indian Parliament shall apply to the state of Nagaland concerning four highly sensitive areas: Naga religious or social practices, Naga customary law and procedure, the administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law, and the ownership and transfer of land and its resources. Parliament can only legislate on these specific matters if the State Legislative Assembly of Nagaland explicitly passes a resolution approving the application of the central law.

📌 Special Provisions • Mizoram

Q.30) Article 371G provides similar protections regarding Mizo religious or social practices and Mizo customary law for the state of:

Ans > Mizoram

The Decades-Long Mizo Insurgency: Similar to the situation in Nagaland, the Mizo Hills district (which was originally part of Assam) experienced a devastating, decades-long violent insurgency led by the Mizo National Front (MNF). The MNF, under the leadership of Laldenga, fought a bitter war against the Indian state, seeking self-determination and the protection of their distinct ethnic and cultural identity from perceived assimilation.
The Historic Mizo Peace Accord: After twenty years of devastating conflict, a breakthrough was achieved with the signing of the historic Mizo Peace Accord in 1986 between the Rajiv Gandhi-led Union Government and the MNF. As a direct result of this successful peace treaty, Mizoram was elevated from a Union Territory to a full-fledged State of the Indian Union in 1987.
Constitutional Protections under Article 371G: To honor the commitments made in the Peace Accord, the 53rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1986) inserted Article 371G. Mirroring the protections granted to Nagaland, this article ensures that the customary laws, religious practices, and social structures of the Mizo people are entirely insulated from central legislative interference. Specifically, no Act of Parliament concerning Mizo religious or social practices, customary law, the administration of justice involving Mizo laws, or the ownership of land can be enforced in Mizoram unless the Mizoram State Legislative Assembly formally resolves to adopt it.

📌 Quick Summary — Polity Set 172

Fundamental Rights: Article 32 is not strictly subject to the Doctrine of Laches.
Impeachment (Lok Sabha): Removing a judge requires 100 signatures in the Lok Sabha.
Impeachment (Rajya Sabha): Removing a judge requires 50 signatures in the Rajya Sabha.
Investigative Committee: The Union Law Minister is NOT part of the judge probe panel.
Supreme Court: Article 143 grants the President the power to seek an advisory opinion.
Advisory Powers: SC is bound to advise only on pre-constitution treaty disputes.
Scheduled Areas: The Bhuria Committee paved the way for the PESA Act of 1996.
Forest Rights: The Gram Sabha initiates the process for forest rights under FRA 2006.
Women’s Rights: National Commission for Women (NCW) was established in 1990.
Child Rights: NCPCR operates under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Market Regulation: Competition Commission of India (CCI) replaced MRTP in 2003.
Corporate Law: NCLT and NCLAT were constituted under the Companies Act, 2013.
Military Administration: The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) is a Four-star General.
National Security: The Prime Minister heads the National Security Council (NSC).
Strategic Security: SPG is the core inter-ministerial coordination mechanism for the NSC.
Parliament Powers: 24th Amendment allowed Parliament to amend Fundamental Rights.
Rights vs DPSP: 25th Amendment gave primacy to Art 39(b)&(c) over 14, 19, and 31.
Basic Structure: Minerva Mills case struck down 42nd Amendment’s Art 31C expansion.
Tribunals: 42nd Amendment Act inserted Part XIV-A (Articles 323A & 323B).
Emergency Provisions: 44th Amendment mandated written advice from the Cabinet.
Right to Education: 86th Amendment made primary education a Fundamental Right (Art 21A).
Council of Ministers: 91st Amendment capped the ministry size at 15% of the House strength.
Co-operative Societies: 97th Amendment added Part IX-B to the Constitution.
Taxation: 101st Amendment inserted Article 279A to establish the GST Council.
Statutory to Constitutional: 102nd Amendment granted constitutional status to NCBC.
Reservation (EWS): 103rd Amendment amended Articles 15 and 16.
Political Representation: 104th Amendment ended the Anglo-Indian nomination in legislatures.
Special Provisions (States): Article 371 is for Maharashtra and Gujarat.
Special Provisions (Nagaland): Article 371A empowers the State Legislative Assembly of Nagaland.
Special Provisions (Mizoram): Article 371G provides special protections for Mizoram.

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Polity Set 172

Q.1) The legal “Doctrine of Laches” essentially states that courts will not help people who sleep on their rights. However, the Supreme Court has generally ruled that this doctrine does NOT strictly apply to petitions filed under which Article?

Q.2) Under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, a motion for the removal (impeachment) of a Supreme Court or High Court judge requires the signatures of at least how many members if introduced in the Lok Sabha?

Q.3) Under the same Act, a motion for the removal of a judge requires the signatures of at least how many members if introduced in the Rajya Sabha?

Q.4) Once the motion is admitted by the Speaker/Chairman, a three-member committee is constituted to investigate the charges against the judge. Which of the following is NOT typically a member of this committee?

Q.5) Which Article grants the President of India the power to refer any matter of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion?

Q.6) Is the Supreme Court bound to give its opinion to the President on all matters referred to it under Article 143?

Q.7) Which committee’s recommendations paved the way for the enactment of the PESA Act (Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996)?

Q.8) The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006. Under this Act, who is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights?

Q.9) Which statutory body was established in 1990 to protect and promote the interests of women in India, and to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women?

Q.10) The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was established in 2007 as a statutory body under the CPCR Act, 2005. It operates under the administrative control of which Ministry?

Q.11) Which statutory authority was established in 2003, replacing the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Commission, to prevent practices having an adverse effect on economic competition?

Q.12) The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) were constituted under the provisions of which Act?

Q.13) In 2019, the Government of India created the post of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) to act as the principal military advisor to the Defence Minister. The CDS is a:

Q.14) The National Security Council (NSC) of India is the apex agency looking into the country’s political, economic, energy, and strategic security concerns. It is headed by the:

Q.15) What is the Strategic Policy Group (SPG)?

Q.16) Which Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) made it clear that the Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, under Article 368?

Q.17) The 25th Amendment Act (1971) inserted Article 31C. It gave primacy to the Directive Principles contained in Article 39(b) and (c) over the Fundamental Rights contained in Articles:

Q.18) The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) attempted to extend the scope of Article 31C by giving primacy to all Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights. Which landmark Supreme Court case struck down this specific expansion?

Q.19) Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted a new Part XIV-A (Tribunals) containing Articles 323A and 323B?

Q.20) The 44th Amendment Act (1978) substituted the term “Internal Disturbance” with “Armed Rebellion” in Article 352. It also required that a National Emergency can only be declared by the President on the written advice of the:

Q.21) Which Amendment Act is recognized for making primary education a Fundamental Right (Article 21A) and adding the 11th Fundamental Duty?

Q.22) Which Constitutional Amendment Act restricted the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha / State Legislative Assembly?

Q.23) The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act (2011) gave constitutional status to Co-operative Societies. It added which new Part to the Constitution?

Q.24) The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act (2016) introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST). Which new Article was inserted to establish the GST Council?

Q.25) Which Constitutional Amendment Act granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)?

Q.26) The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act (2019) provided for a maximum of 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). It amended which two Articles of the Constitution?

Q.27) The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act (2020) extended political reservations for SCs and STs for another ten years, but officially ended the provision for nominating members of which community to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies?

Q.28) Article 371 of the Constitution makes special provisions for the establishment of separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada, Saurashtra, and Kutch in the states of:

Q.29) Article 371A gives special provisions to the state of Nagaland. Under this Article, acts of Parliament relating to Naga religious or social practices do not apply unless approved by the:

Q.30) Article 371G provides similar protections regarding Mizo religious or social practices and Mizo customary law for the state of:

📌 Quick Summary — Polity Set 172

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Q.1) The legal “Doctrine of Laches” essentially states that courts will not help people who sleep on their rights. However, the Supreme Court has generally ruled that this doctrine does NOT strictly apply to petitions filed under which Article?

Q.2) Under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, a motion for the removal (impeachment) of a Supreme Court or High Court judge requires the signatures of at least how many members if introduced in the Lok Sabha?

Q.3) Under the same Act, a motion for the removal of a judge requires the signatures of at least how many members if introduced in the Rajya Sabha?

Q.4) Once the motion is admitted by the Speaker/Chairman, a three-member committee is constituted to investigate the charges against the judge. Which of the following is NOT typically a member of this committee?

Q.5) Which Article grants the President of India the power to refer any matter of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion?

Q.6) Is the Supreme Court bound to give its opinion to the President on all matters referred to it under Article 143?

Q.7) Which committee’s recommendations paved the way for the enactment of the PESA Act (Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996)?

Q.8) The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006. Under this Act, who is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights?

Q.9) Which statutory body was established in 1990 to protect and promote the interests of women in India, and to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women?

Q.10) The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was established in 2007 as a statutory body under the CPCR Act, 2005. It operates under the administrative control of which Ministry?

Q.11) Which statutory authority was established in 2003, replacing the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Commission, to prevent practices having an adverse effect on economic competition?

Q.12) The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) were constituted under the provisions of which Act?

Q.13) In 2019, the Government of India created the post of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) to act as the principal military advisor to the Defence Minister. The CDS is a:

Q.14) The National Security Council (NSC) of India is the apex agency looking into the country’s political, economic, energy, and strategic security concerns. It is headed by the:

Q.15) What is the Strategic Policy Group (SPG)?

Q.16) Which Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) made it clear that the Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, under Article 368?

Q.17) The 25th Amendment Act (1971) inserted Article 31C. It gave primacy to the Directive Principles contained in Article 39(b) and (c) over the Fundamental Rights contained in Articles:

Q.18) The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) attempted to extend the scope of Article 31C by giving primacy to all Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights. Which landmark Supreme Court case struck down this specific expansion?

Q.19) Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted a new Part XIV-A (Tribunals) containing Articles 323A and 323B?

Q.20) The 44th Amendment Act (1978) substituted the term “Internal Disturbance” with “Armed Rebellion” in Article 352. It also required that a National Emergency can only be declared by the President on the written advice of the:

Q.21) Which Amendment Act is recognized for making primary education a Fundamental Right (Article 21A) and adding the 11th Fundamental Duty?

Q.22) Which Constitutional Amendment Act restricted the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha / State Legislative Assembly?

Q.23) The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act (2011) gave constitutional status to Co-operative Societies. It added which new Part to the Constitution?

Q.24) The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act (2016) introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST). Which new Article was inserted to establish the GST Council?

Q.25) Which Constitutional Amendment Act granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)?

Q.26) The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act (2019) provided for a maximum of 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). It amended which two Articles of the Constitution?

Q.27) The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act (2020) extended political reservations for SCs and STs for another ten years, but officially ended the provision for nominating members of which community to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies?

Q.28) Article 371 of the Constitution makes special provisions for the establishment of separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada, Saurashtra, and Kutch in the states of:

Q.29) Article 371A gives special provisions to the state of Nagaland. Under this Article, acts of Parliament relating to Naga religious or social practices do not apply unless approved by the:

Q.30) Article 371G provides similar protections regarding Mizo religious or social practices and Mizo customary law for the state of:

📌 Quick Summary — Polity Set 172

Leave a Comment Cancel Reply

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